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AFM 291 · Chapter 10 · Week 12

AFM 291 Chapter 10

The revaluation model, investment property, biological assets and assets held for sale: four places fair value enters non-current assets, and what each one does to profit or loss.

IAS 16IAS 36IAS 40IAS 41IFRS 5

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Built from my upload of the complete Chapter 10 text, with AI assistance and no lecture or PBL material for the chapter; the rules supplied on instruction are marked as not independently re-confirmed.

Chapter 10: Applications of Fair Value to Non-Current Assets

Comprehensive Study Guide (with instructor-style commentary, since you have no PBL/lecture notes for this chapter)

NoteNote on sources and scope: please read first

Good news on completeness: unlike Chapters 1, 3, and 9 (which each had confirmed gaps, missing exhibits, missing checkpoint questions, or sections outside the assigned range), your Chapter 10 source file is complete. I verified all 26 exhibits (10-1 through 10-26) and all 9 checkpoint questions (CP10-1 through CP10-9) are present with no gaps. This means I haven't had to flag any "missing content" callouts in this guide, everything below is traceable to your actual source material.

How to read the instructor-style additions: since you specifically noted you have no PBL applications or lecture notes for this chapter, I've added extra explanatory colour (intuition, analogies, "why professionals care" framing) beyond a strict textbook recap. To keep this honest and easy to audit, everything I've added beyond the textbook's own content is marked with a 🎓 Instructor's Note callout. Anything not in one of those callouts is drawn directly from your source file. This way you always know what's verified textbook content versus my own supplementary explanation.



Learning Objectives Map

# Objective Covered in
LO 10-1 Apply the revaluation model of accounting for non-current assets Part A
LO 10-2 Evaluate whether a non-current asset should be tested for impairment, whether it is impaired, and the extent of impairment Part B
LO 10-3 Account for the impairment of different types of non-current assets Part B
LO 10-4 Apply the specialized standards for investment properties and agricultural activities Parts C, D
LO 10-5 Apply the accounting standards for non-current assets held for sale and discontinued operations Part E

Relevant CPA competencies named in your text: 1.1.2 (methods of measurement), 1.2.1 (accounting policies, ethical judgment), 1.2.2 (routine transactions, Level A: PPE; depreciation/amortization/impairment/derecognition), 1.2.3 (non-routine transactions, Level B, uncommon capital assets: investment properties, biological assets; and assets held for sale/discontinued operations), 1.3.2 (routine disclosure), 1.4.1 (complex disclosure analysis, Level C), and three valuation-specific competencies at Level C: 5.4.1 (determining the value of a tangible asset), 5.4.2 (applying methods to estimate the value of a business), 5.4.3 (estimating the value of an intangible asset).

TipInstructor's Note:

notice this chapter is the first one in your course to explicitly bring in the 5.4.x "valuation" competencies at Level C, the highest proficiency level used in this chapter. That's not an accident: this chapter is where financial reporting starts to overlap directly with valuation work (fair value estimates, value-in-use discounted cash flow analysis, recoverable amount determination). If you're aiming at a CPA designation or any finance-adjacent role, the impairment testing mechanics in Part B are genuinely transferable to business valuation and equity research work, not just an accounting exercise.


Decision Flowcharts & Logic Trees

Exhibit 10-7 reconstructed: The impairment flowchart

Exhibit number and full three-stage content preserved exactly; ASCII flowchart redrawn as Mermaid. [Visual upgrade, substitution]

flowchart TD
    subgraph STAGE1["STAGE 1 — Preliminary steps"]
        A["Determine the<br/>CASH GENERATING UNIT"]
        A --> B{"Intangible with indefinite life,<br/>or goodwill?"}
        B -->|"YES"| C["Test for impairment<br/>ANNUALLY, regardless<br/>of indications"]
        B -->|"NO"| D{"Are there INDICATIONS<br/>the asset may be impaired?<br/>See Exhibit 10-8"}
        D -->|"NO"| STOPA["STOP.<br/>No test required."]
    end

    subgraph STAGE2["STAGE 2 — The impairment test"]
        E["RECOVERABLE AMOUNT =<br/>the HIGHER of:<br/>1. Fair value less cost to sell<br/>2. Value in use"]
        E --> F{"Is CARRYING VALUE greater than<br/>RECOVERABLE AMOUNT?"}
        F -->|"NO"| STOPB["STOP.<br/>Not impaired."]
        F -->|"YES"| G["Allocate the impairment loss<br/>to assets within the CGU.<br/>Goodwill absorbs the loss FIRST.<br/>Respect the IAS 36.105 floor."]
    end

    subgraph STAGE3["STAGE 3 — Recognition"]
        H{"Which measurement<br/>model applies?"}
        H -->|"COST MODEL"| I["Write asset down to recoverable<br/>amount. Record loss to the<br/>INCOME STATEMENT."]
        H -->|"REVALUATION MODEL"| J["Apply revaluation rules.<br/>Loss first reduces any existing<br/>revaluation surplus via OCI,<br/>remainder to profit or loss."]
    end

    C --> E
    D -->|"YES"| E
    G --> H

Exhibit 10-24 reconstructed: Scope of IAS 41 Agriculture

Exhibit number and full content preserved exactly; ASCII diagram redrawn as Mermaid. [Visual upgrade, substitution]

flowchart LR
    subgraph IAS41["IAS 41 Agriculture — agricultural activities"]
        REP["Reproduction"]
        ACQ["Acquire<br/>biological asset"]
        GROW["Growth /<br/>Degeneration"]
        HARV["HARVEST<br/>Scope boundary"]
        REP --> GROW
        ACQ --> GROW
        GROW --> HARV
    end

    subgraph OTHER["Other standards — e.g. IAS 2 — non-agricultural activities"]
        PROC["Post-harvest<br/>processing"]
        END["End of processing"]
        PROC --> END
    end

    HARV --> PROC

    BA["BIOLOGICAL ASSETS<br/>Vines, dairy cattle, trees<br/>A LIVING animal or plant"]
    AP["AGRICULTURAL PRODUCE<br/>Grapes, milk, logs<br/>The HARVESTED product"]
    PP["PROCESSED PRODUCTS<br/>Juice, jelly, wine, yogurt,<br/>cheese, lumber, paper"]

    BA --> AP --> PP

TipInstructor's Note: bearer plants are the exception inside this diagram [Clarification]

Vines and fruit trees sit visually inside the IAS 41 box as "biological assets," but since the 2014 amendment effective January 1, 2014, bearer plants are excluded from IAS 41's fair value requirement and accounted for as ordinary PPE under IAS 16. Only the produce growing on them (the grapes, the fruit) stays under IAS 41. Andrew Peller Limited (Exhibit 10-25) is the real-world proof: $31.1 million of "vines, vineyard land, and infrastructure" sits in PP&E at cost less accumulated amortization, while only the unharvested grapes appear as biological assets.


Part 0: Foundations Refresher

(My addition, since this chapter builds on a lot of earlier material. Skim if you're already comfortable with the cost model, OCI, and the prudence/conservatism concept.)

Where this chapter sits in your course

Chapters 8 and 9 covered PPE and intangible assets using the historical cost model exclusively, an asset's carrying value is (cost) − (accumulated depreciation/amortization) − (accumulated impairment). This chapter introduces the alternative: measuring non-current assets at fair value instead. Three different "flavours" of fair-value-based accounting appear in this one chapter, and it's easy to blur them together, so here's the map before you dive in:

Model Applies to Where gains/losses go Depreciation?
Revaluation model (Part A) PPE, intangible assets OCI or net income, depending on cumulative history Yes, still required
Fair value model for investment property (Part C) Investment property only Always net income No
Fair value model for biological assets/produce (Part D) Biological assets, agricultural produce Always net income (profit or loss) N/A (not depreciated the same way)

TipInstructor's Note:

if you remember nothing else from this comparison table, remember this: the moment you leave "generic PPE" (Part A) and enter a chapter-specific specialized standard (investment property in Part C, or agriculture in Part D), the OCI option disappears and everything just goes through net income. That's a pattern worth internalizing because it'll save you from a very common mix-up on exams: students often assume "fair value changes = OCI" as a blanket rule, when it's actually specific to the revaluation model for ordinary PPE/intangibles.

Quick refresher: cost vs. fair value, and why both exist

Historical cost: what you actually paid. Reliable (it's a fact, not an estimate) but can become irrelevant if market conditions have shifted a lot since purchase. Fair value: what the asset is worth today. More relevant to current decision-making, but requires estimation, introducing measurement uncertainty.

This is the same relevance vs. reliability tension you've seen since Chapter 2's Conceptual Framework material, this chapter is really just that tension playing out concretely for long-lived assets.

Quick refresher: OCI and equity components

Recall from Chapter 3: other comprehensive income (OCI) captures value changes that haven't yet been "realized" through an ordinary transaction, they get parked in a reserve within equity rather than hitting net income directly. This chapter's revaluation surplus (Part A) is a specific, named example of an OCI-fed equity reserve, following exactly the same logic as the FVOCI-securities example from Chapter 3.

Quick refresher: prudence / conservatism

Prudence (IFRS) / conservatism (ASPE): don't overstate assets or income; when in doubt, lean toward the more cautious figure.

This concept is why impairment (Part B) is mandatory while revaluation (Part A) is optional, impairment only ever pushes carrying values down (never up beyond original cost basis in one specific sense you'll see below), which is squarely a prudence-driven, one-directional rule. Revaluation, by contrast, can go either up or down, which is why it's optional and requires reliable fair values before it's even allowed.


Part A: The Revaluation Model of Measuring Carrying Values Subsequent to Initial Acquisition

(LO 10-1)

Opening context: LVMH

Your textbook opens this chapter with LVMH Moët Hennessy–Louis Vuitton (Paris Stock Exchange: MC), a €79 billion-sales luxury conglomerate (Moët & Chandon, Dior perfume, TAG Heuer, Louis Vuitton). In its 2023 financial statements, LVMH reported €1,156 million in "revaluation reserves" for vineyard land (up €31 million from the prior year), €20,030 million gross goodwill with €1,690 million of impairment, leaving €18,340 million net goodwill, and €316 million of investment property carried at cost. This one real company touches every major topic in this chapter (revaluation, impairment, and investment property) which is exactly why the textbook opens with it.

TipInstructor's Note:

a useful way to think about why LVMH specifically shows up here: luxury goods companies often own genuinely appreciating assets (vineyard land for Champagne production, iconic real estate) where historical cost would badly understate true economic value. This is precisely the kind of company where the revaluation model's relevance benefit is most obvious, a €50-year-old vineyard purchase price tells you almost nothing useful about what that land is worth today.

The core choice: cost model vs. revaluation model

In briefTHRESHOLD: Conceptual Framework

Chapters 8 and 9 covered non-current assets using the historical cost basis. The revaluation model using fair values is the alternative. Historical figures are reliable but can become irrelevant if prices have changed materially (market conditions, technological change, inflation, etc.). IFRS permits the fair-value-based alternative because fair values better reflect current conditions and are more relevant. ASPE does not permit revaluations at all. For private enterprises, fair values have limited usefulness since the user base is narrow (the owners and their bankers), and historical cost is simpler to prepare and easier for readers to understand.

IAS 16 governs this for PPE:

¶29 An entity shall choose either the cost model in paragraph 30 or the revaluation model in paragraph 31 as its accounting policy and shall apply that policy to an entire class of property, plant, and equipment. ¶30 After recognition as an asset, an item of PPE shall be carried at cost less any accumulated depreciation and any accumulated impairment losses. ¶31 After recognition as an asset, an item of PPE whose fair value can be measured reliably shall be carried at a revalued amount, being its fair value at the date of the revaluation less any subsequent accumulated depreciation and subsequent accumulated impairment losses. Revaluation shall be made with sufficient regularity to ensure that the carrying amount does not differ materially from that which would be determined using fair value at the end of the reporting period.

In briefTHRESHOLD: Conceptual Framework

Revaluation is not compulsory, a company chooses cost or revaluation. IFRS's goal in allowing a choice is higher relevance when fair value estimates are sufficiently reliable. If an enterprise cannot reliably measure fair value, it must use the cost model. Most intangible assets fail this test. IAS 38: "It is uncommon for an active market ... to exist for an intangible asset, although this may happen. For example, in some jurisdictions, an active market may exist for freely transferable taxi licences, fishing licences, or production quotas. However, an active market cannot exist for brands, newspaper mastheads, music and film publishing rights, patents or trademarks, because each such asset is unique."

TipInstructor's Note:

this is worth sitting with for a second, it explains why you'll almost never see a company revalue its patents or trademarks upward, even though intangible assets are explicitly eligible for the revaluation model in principle (Chapter 9 mentioned this in passing). The practical reality is that reliable fair values for most intangibles simply don't exist, because, unlike taxi licences or fishing quotas, no two patents or brands are interchangeable enough to have an observable market price. This is a good example of a rule that's technically an option but is practically almost never usable.

Frequency: revaluation doesn't need to happen every year, frequency depends on how quickly fair values are likely to deviate materially from carrying value (faster/larger changes → more frequent revaluation needed).

TrapTHRESHOLD: Quality of Earnings

Enterprises must apply the model consistently within an asset class (land, buildings, machinery, motor vehicles, office equipment, licences, pollution permits, etc. are each their own "class"). This prevents "cherry picking", selectively revaluing only the assets that have gone up in value while leaving depreciated-cost carrying values on assets that have declined, which would otherwise let management manufacture a rosier balance sheet.

There are three accounting issues to work through once fair value is established: (1) how to adjust the asset value itself, (2) how the offsetting equity effect is treated, (3) how future depreciation is affected.

1. Adjusting asset values for revaluation

Non-depreciable assets (land, indefinite-life intangibles): straightforward, just adjust to fair value. Example: Quesnel Company carries land at $80,000; a professional appraisal values it at $100,000:

Dr. Land                                          20,000
    Cr. [Profit/loss account or OCI]                      20,000

Depreciable assets: the net effect is the same ($20,000 increase), but now you must decide how to split that increase between the gross carrying amount and accumulated depreciation. Two methods exist.

a. Proportional method

Restates both gross carrying value and accumulated depreciation by the same percentage, so the ratio between them is preserved.

Quesnel's equipment: net carrying amount $80,000 (gross $120,000 − accumulated depreciation $40,000). Fair value revalued to $100,000. Fair value exceeds net carrying amount by 25% (($100,000 ÷ $80,000) − 1). So both gross carrying value and accumulated depreciation increase by 25%.

Exhibit 10-1: Proportional method for Quesnel Company

Before revaluation After revaluation Change
Equipment $120,000 $150,000 +25%
Accum. depreciation 40,000 50,000 +25%
Net carrying amount $80,000 $100,000 +25%

b. Elimination method

Resets accumulated depreciation to zero on the revaluation date, so gross carrying amount = net carrying amount. Revaluing the net carrying amount then just means directly adjusting the gross carrying amount.

Exhibit 10-2: Elimination method for Quesnel Company

Before revaluation After revaluation Change
Equipment $120,000 $100,000
Accum. depreciation 40,000 0
Net carrying amount $80,000 $100,000 +25%

c. Comparing the two methods

Both produce the same net carrying amount ($100,000 fair value), only the split between gross value and accumulated depreciation differs.

Exhibit 10-3: Journal entries for both methods

Proportional method Elimination method
Dr. Equipment $30,000 Cr. Equipment $20,000
Cr. Accumulated depreciation 10,000 Dr. Accumulated depreciation 40,000
Cr. [Profit/loss or OCI] 20,000 Cr. [Profit/loss or OCI] 20,000

Interpretation: the proportional method preserves the character of the original purchase, the ratio of accumulated depreciation to cost is unchanged before/after revaluation. The elimination method makes the numbers look like a fresh purchase at the revaluation date (zero accumulated depreciation), which hides the asset's true age from a reader relying purely on the accumulated-depreciation figure. Neither method is "correct", the proportional method's implied "as if these prices existed at original purchase" framing is purely hypothetical, and the elimination method's implied "as if newly purchased" framing understates the asset's age. Choosing between them is a matter of professional judgment.

TipInstructor's Note:

a useful gut-check for exam problems: if a question gives you a gross carrying amount, accumulated depreciation, AND a fair value, and asks you to journalize a revaluation without specifying which method, check carefully whether the question implies a specific ratio should be preserved (proportional) or whether it explicitly says to "reset" or "eliminate" accumulated depreciation. If genuinely ambiguous, the proportional method is the more common default in practice and in most textbook problems, but always check for either the word "proportional"/"elimination" or a percentage-preservation cue in the question itself.

2. Accounting for the effect of revaluation on equity

The offsetting side of the journal entry (the credit in the examples above) depends on whether the revaluation is upward or downward, and what past revaluations occurred for that same specific asset. IAS 16:

¶39 If an asset's carrying amount is increased as a result of a revaluation, the increase shall be recognized in other comprehensive income and accumulated in equity under the heading of revaluation surplus. However, the increase shall be recognized in profit or loss to the extent that it reverses a revaluation decrease of the same asset previously recognized in profit or loss. ¶40 If an asset's carrying amount is decreased as a result of a revaluation, the decrease shall be recognized in profit or loss. However, the decrease shall be recognized in other comprehensive income to the extent of any credit balance existing in the revaluation surplus in respect of that asset. The decrease recognized in OCI reduces the amount accumulated in equity under the heading of revaluation surplus.

These two paragraphs are genuinely hard to parse as prose, your textbook itself says so, and provides a graph to make the logic concrete.

Watch outExam trap: revaluation adjustments are ASYMMETRIC and history-dependent [CPA exam addition]

The trap: applying one uniform rule, usually "gains to OCI, losses to P&L", to every revaluation adjustment.

Why students miss it: that rule is clean, memorable, and right about half the time. It fails on exactly the fact patterns designed to test it.

The actual rule depends on the asset's CUMULATIVE revaluation history, not on the sign of the current year's movement:

Cumulative position Textbook's term Current adjustment goes to
Cumulative revaluation > 0 "Above water" OCI, revaluation surplus
Cumulative revaluation < 0 "Under water" Profit or loss
Adjustment crosses zero — SPLIT between both

The split, mechanically: take however much is needed to bring the opening cumulative balance to exactly zero → that portion goes to profit or loss. Whatever remains → OCI.

Exhibit 10-5 scenario (iii) is built for this: opening balance −$15,000, current adjustment +$20,000 → $15,000 to P&L (eliminating the under-water balance) and $5,000 to OCI.

This same split-at-zero logic reappears in impairment under the revaluation model (Exhibit 10-14): the existing surplus is eliminated through OCI first, and only the remainder hits net income.

Marker expectation: compute the split explicitly on any zero-crossing fact pattern. A single-destination answer loses the marks even if the total adjustment is right.

Caveat: technical-risk area identified from the structure of the standards, an asymmetry, exception, or look-alike concept. Not verified CPA Common Final Examination marker data.

Exhibit 10-4 reconstructed: Treatment of revaluation adjustments

Cumulative
revaluation
adjustment
    +  │           Asset A (dotted line)
       │          ╱‾‾‾‾╲
       │         ╱      ╲___________________
       │        ╱                            ╲___________  } To OCI
       │       ╱                                          } (revaluation
    0  ┼──────╱────────────────────────────────╲──────────  surplus)
       │                                         ╲________
       │      ╲___                                        } To profit
       │           ╲___          ___________________     }  or loss
    −  │               ╲________╱          Asset B (solid line)
       └──────────────────────────────────────────────▶ Time

The asymmetric rule, explained plainly: - Cumulative revaluation increases (dotted line, Asset A) → OCI, into the revaluation surplus equity account. - Cumulative revaluation decreases (solid line, Asset B) → profit or loss (net income). Your textbook calls assets in this state "under water", cumulative adjustments below zero. - In a single year, if an adjustment crosses from below zero to above zero (or vice versa), it can be split: part goes through profit or loss, part through OCI.

TipInstructor's Note:

the "under water" language is worth internalizing as a mental model, literally picture a swimming pool water line at zero. Once an asset's cumulative revaluation has sunk "underwater" (net negative), any further losses drag it deeper (all through net income), and getting back to the surface (net income gains, reversing prior losses) doesn't get the OCI treatment until it actually breaks the surface. Only gains above the water line accumulate as OCI/revaluation surplus.

Worked example, three scenarios for Quesnel's equipment, each with a $20,000 current-year revaluation increase, but different opening cumulative revaluation balances: (i) $30,000; (ii) −$30,000; (iii) −$15,000.

Exhibit 10-5: Journal entries for the three scenarios (proportional method)

Scenario Opening balance Current adjustment Closing balance Journal entries
(i) $30,000 +$20,000 $50,000 Dr. Equipment 30,000 / Cr. Accum. dep. 10,000 / Cr. OCI, revaluation surplus 20,000
(ii) −$30,000 +$20,000 −$10,000 Dr. Equipment 30,000 / Cr. Accum. dep. 10,000 / Cr. Gain on revaluation of equipment 20,000
(iii) −$15,000 +$20,000 $5,000 Dr. Equipment 30,000 / Cr. Accum. dep. 10,000 / Cr. Gain on revaluation of equipment 15,000 / Cr. OCI, revaluation surplus 5,000

Reading scenario (iii) carefully, this is the "crossing zero" case: the asset was $15,000 "under water." The $20,000 increase first eliminates that $15,000 cumulative loss (recognized as a gain through net income, since it's literally reversing prior net-income losses), and only the remaining $5,000 (the portion that pushes the asset above the original water line) goes to OCI/revaluation surplus.

TipInstructor's Note:

the arithmetic trick for these problems: split the current-year adjustment into "however much is needed to bring the opening balance to exactly zero" (→ net income) and "whatever's left over" (→ OCI). In scenario (iii): $15,000 needed to zero out the opening −$15,000 (→ net income), leaving $20,000 − $15,000 = $5,000 (→ OCI). This same split-at-zero logic will come back in Part B for impairment reversals with a revaluation surplus.

3. Adjusting depreciation in periods subsequent to revaluation

A revaluation is a change in estimate (new information about asset value) → accounted for prospectively (Chapter 3's classification framework, applied here).

Quesnel's equipment: 6-year useful life, zero residual value, revaluation at end of Year 2/start of Year 3. Pre-revaluation: gross $120,000, so depreciation = $120,000 ÷ 6 = $20,000/year. Revaluation increases net carrying amount from $80,000 to $100,000 at the start of Year 3, with 4 years remaining → new depreciation = $100,000 ÷ 4 = $25,000/year.

Exhibit 10-6: Full depreciation schedule reflecting the revaluation

Year Gross carrying amount Accum. dep. before current-year dep. Net carrying amount Residual value Remaining depreciable amount Useful life remaining Straight-line depreciation
1 120,000 0 120,000 0 120,000 6 years 20,000
2 120,000 20,000 100,000 0 100,000 5 years 20,000
3 (pre-RA) 120,000 40,000 80,000
RA* +30,000 +10,000 +20,000
3 (post-RA) 150,000 50,000 100,000 0 100,000 4 years 25,000
4 150,000 75,000 75,000 0 75,000 3 years 25,000
5 150,000 100,000 50,000 0 50,000 2 years 25,000
6 150,000 125,000 25,000 0 25,000 1 year 25,000

*RA = revaluation adjustment (occurred end of Year 2, so depreciation changes begin Year 3; figures assume the proportional method).

Formula: Depreciation = Remaining depreciable amount ÷ Remaining useful life. If further revaluations happen in later years, the schedule gets revised again, prospectively, each time.

CheckpointCP10-1: Identify and describe the two methods for reflecting revaluation adjustments for depreciable assets.

A: Elimination method (resets accumulated depreciation to zero, gross carrying amount = revalued amount) and proportional method (adjusts gross carrying amount and accumulated depreciation by the same percentage so net carrying amount = revalued amount).

CheckpointCP10-2: When do revaluation adjustments flow through net income vs. OCI?

A: Through net income when the asset is "under water" (cumulative revaluations below zero); through OCI when "above water" (cumulative revaluations above zero).


Part B: Impairment

(LO 10-2, LO 10-3)

Unlike revaluation, impairment is not optional. Representational faithfulness requires that reported asset values not overstate what can be recovered through sale or use. If a non-current asset's carrying value can't be recovered, it must be written down. (Same underlying logic as Chapter 6's lower-of-cost-and-net-realizable-value rule for inventory, this section is IAS 36's version of that idea, applied to non-current assets.)

Impairment accounting has three stages: (1) preliminary steps, what to test, (2) the impairment test itself, (3) recognition in the financial statements.

Exhibit 10-7 reconstructed: The impairment flowchart

STAGE 1: Preliminary steps          STAGE 2: Impairment test         STAGE 3: Recognition
─────────────────────────           ────────────────────────         ─────────────────────

Determine cash                      Recoverable amount =
generating unit                     higher of:
     │                              (1) Fair value less
     ▼                                  cost to sell
Intangible with indefinite          (2) Value in use
life or goodwill?                          │
  │YES        │NO                          ▼
  ▼            ▼                     Is Carrying Value >                          Cost model?
Test for      Indications asset      Recoverable Amount?                              │
impairment    may be impaired?         │YES        │NO                                ▼
annually        │YES     │NO           ▼            ▼                          Write down asset to
  │              │        ▼      Allocate impairment  Stop                     recoverable amount,
  │              │      STOP     loss to assets within                        record loss to income
  │              │                cash generating unit                             statement
  └──────────────┴───────────────────────┬──────────────────────────────────────────┤
                                          │                                          │
                                          └──────────────────────────────────► Revaluation model?
                                                                                       │
                                                                                       ▼
                                                                              Apply revaluation rules
                                                                              (record loss, or reduce
                                                                               revaluation surplus)

TipInstructor's Note:

the cleanest way to internalize this flowchart is as two separate gates you must pass through, both defaulting to "no work required" unless triggered. Gate 1 (Stage 1): do you even need to test? (Automatic yes annually for goodwill/indefinite-life intangibles; otherwise only if there's a specific indication of impairment.) Gate 2 (Stage 2): having tested, is the asset actually impaired? (Only if carrying value exceeds the recoverable amount.) Most assets, most years, will exit at "Stop" after Gate 1, impairment testing is deliberately built to not be busywork for every asset every year.

1. Preliminary steps: what to test for impairment

The core problem: where's the boundary between "one asset" and "another" for impairment purposes? Your text poses this via two contrasting examples: a wholesaler's delivery truck likely generates cash flows independently, but a subway car does not, because it only works as part of an integrated system (tracks, other cars, transfer points to other lines/buses), you can't isolate "this one subway car's" cash inflows.

Cash generating unit (CGU): the smallest identifiable group of assets that generates cash inflows largely independent of other assets/groups.

Another example directly from your text: an assembly line with many machines, no single machine produces output independently, so the whole line is one CGU.

TipInstructor's Note:

the practical test I'd suggest running in your head for any impairment problem: "if I sold only this one asset and kept everything else running, would the remaining assets still generate meaningful cash flow on their own?" If yes → probably its own CGU. If the remaining assets would be crippled or produce nothing without it → it belongs in a larger CGU with those other assets. This is exactly why Red Rocket Racers' three machines (below) get bundled into a single CGU, they're used together in one production process.

Not every asset gets tested every year. IAS 36 requires testing only if there are "indications that the asset may be impaired." Examples straight from your text: - A company licenses a patented production process that becomes technologically inferior after a competing process emerges. - Market demand for steel plummets due to contracting car sales/production. - Government changes legislation on tobacco product distribution. - A company shifts its focus from forestry to telecommunications.

Why an annual search is mandated (not left to management's discretion): if testing were only triggered by management's own voluntary recognition of "indications," there'd be an obvious incentive to simply not look very hard. So IFRS requires an annual minimum search using at least these sources (IAS 36 ¶12):

Exhibit 10-8: Minimum sources for indications of impairment

Internal sources External sources
Evidence of obsolescence or physical damage Market value of the asset declined more than normal aging would explain
Changes in, or planned changes to, the asset's use Adverse changes in technological, legal, product-market, or general economic environments
Internal reporting showing performance below expectations Interest rate increases that would adversely affect the asset's discounted cash flow value
The enterprise's overall market value is less than its net assets' carrying value

Example straight from your text: a restaurant chain in 2020 would have needed to evaluate equipment/buildings for impairment due to COVID-19 restrictions.

ESG Highlight (from your text). Tightening environmental regulations and shifting customer demand can render production equipment/intangibles obsolete if they can't adapt. Climate change (more severe storms, rising sea levels) can substantially affect property values in storm-surge/flood-prone areas, both are legitimate "indications of impairment" sources to watch for.

The exception to "only test if there's an indication": goodwill and indefinite-life intangible assets are tested every year, automatically, regardless of any specific indication, because, unlike finite-life assets, there's no gradual amortization eroding their carrying value over time, so there's no natural mechanism catching an overvaluation before it becomes large and stale.

2. The impairment test

Test annually for goodwill/indefinite-life intangibles, or whenever there's an indication for everything else. The test: compare carrying value to the recoverable amount. If carrying value exceeds recoverable amount → impaired, write down to recoverable amount. Otherwise → no adjustment.

Recoverable amount = the higher of (1) fair value less cost to sell, and (2) value in use.

Watch outExam trap: recoverable amount is the HIGHER of the two, not the lower [CPA exam addition]

The trap: taking the lower of fair value less costs to sell and value in use, on the reasoning that impairment means conservatism and conservatism means the smaller number.

Why students miss it: the instinct is strong, consistent with everything else they have learned about prudence, and wrong.

Correct approach: ==the recoverable amount is the HIGHER of the two==. Your textbook is explicit: "it is not intended to capture the worst-case scenario…" Management can genuinely choose between selling the asset and continuing to use it, so the relevant benchmark is the best available alternative, not the gloomier estimate.

Where conservatism actually enters: in the fact that the asset is written down at all rather than left at cost, not in cherry-picking the lower of two recoverable-amount estimates.

Practical shortcut: you do not always need both figures. If either one alone already exceeds carrying value, the asset is not impaired and you can stop.

Marker expectation: state "higher of" and give the reason, management's genuine choice between disposal and continued use. The reasoning is where the marks are, not the selection itself.

Caveat: technical-risk area identified from the structure of the standards, an asymmetry, exception, or look-alike concept. Not verified CPA Common Final Examination marker data.

Why "higher of"? Economically sensible: an enterprise can either sell the asset or keep using it, rationally, it picks whichever option generates more net benefit. Practical shortcut: you don't always need both numbers, if fair value less cost to sell alone already exceeds carrying value, the asset isn't impaired, full stop (no need to also compute value in use), and vice versa.

a. Fair value less cost to sell

Fair value less cost to sell: price receivable to sell an asset (or payable to transfer a liability) in an orderly transaction between market participants at the measurement date, less costs of disposal. Costs of disposal (IAS 36): incremental costs directly attributable to disposal, excluding finance costs and income tax expense. Examples: removal/transportation costs (if seller-paid), cleaning/refurbishment costs.

b. Value in use

Value in use: the present value of future cash flows expected from the asset (or CGU). This is exactly why defining the CGU matters so much, you can't run a discounted cash flow analysis without first defining what unit produces those cash flows. (Standard DCF technique, your textbook notes Appendix C covers the general mechanics, and IAS 36 ¶30-57 has additional technical detail beyond this text's scope.)

TipInstructor's Note:

if you've done any corporate finance coursework, "value in use" is functionally the same concept as a DCF valuation of a specific asset/project, same math (discount projected cash flows at an appropriate rate), just applied at the level of a single CGU rather than a whole company. This is one of the clearest bridges in your whole accounting curriculum to mainstream finance/valuation technique.

c. Full worked example: Red Rocket Racers

Setup: hypothetical performance-bicycle builder ($3,000–$10,000 retail). Sales had been rising, but a recession starting Year 3 caused a 45% sales drop by Dec. 31, Year 4 (year-end) vs. the same month a year prior; by June Year 4, production was curtailed and half the production staff laid off. Red Rocket rents its facilities but owns several pieces of manufacturing equipment.

Exhibit 10-9: Facts

1. Accounting records at Dec. 31, Year 4 (all 3 machines purchased 4 years ago, straight-line depreciated over 10 years):

Machine A Machine B Machine C
Gross carrying amount $360,000 $720,000 $120,000
Accumulated depreciation (144,000) (288,000) (48,000)
Net carrying amount $216,000 $432,000 $72,000

2. Recent auction results for similar equipment (from bankrupt competitors, liquidation sales):

Machine A Machine B Machine C
Age Price Age Price Age Price
2 yrs $200,000 4 yrs $400,000 6 yrs $40,000
6 yrs 100,000 6 yrs 250,000 8 yrs 20,000
8 yrs 50,000

3. Overall industry sales declined only modestly (value-conscious consumers downshifted to lower-priced bikes), management estimates an orderly sale would fetch $170,000 (A), $450,000 (B), $50,000 (C).

4. Transport/moving costs negligible; all three machines have negligible residual value.

5. Forecasted cash flows for the machines' remaining 6-year useful life (one combined forecast, since all three machines serve the same production process):

Year ended/ending Dec. 31 Year 3 Year 4 Year 5 Year 6–Year 10
Number of bikes produced 1,200 800 800 1,000
Avg. contribution margin/bike $600 $200 $250 $300
Total contribution margin 720,000 160,000 200,000 300,000
Other costs of sales/distribution 200,000 100,000 110,000 140,000
Net incremental cash flow $520,000 $60,000 $90,000 $160,000

6. Cost of capital for discounting: 12%.

Analysis (directly from your text)

  • Cash generating unit(s): the three machines form one CGU, their cash inflows result from concurrent, joint use, so impairment must be assessed together.
  • Need for impairment test: yes, recessionary conditions and the severe sales drop are clear indications.
  • Carrying amount: $216,000 + $432,000 + $72,000 = $720,000.
  • Fair value less cost to sell: the auction prices are not valid fair values, they're liquidation prices from bankruptcy, and forced-sale prices aren't fair values. The only valid evidence is management's own estimate: $170,000 + $450,000 + $50,000 = $670,000.
  • Value in use: discount the Year 5–Year 10 net incremental cash flows at 12% (Years 3–4 are already past, sunk, and irrelevant to a forward-looking valuation as of the Dec. 31, Year 4 test date):
Year 5 Year 6 Year 7 Year 8 Year 9 Year 10
Net incremental cash flow 90,000 160,000 160,000 160,000 160,000 160,000
PV factor at 12% 0.8929 0.7972 0.7118 0.6355 0.5674 0.5066
PV as at Dec. 31, Year 4 80,357 127,551 113,885 101,683 90,788 81,061

Total present value = $595,325 (rounded to $595,000).

  • Recoverable amount: higher of $670,000 (FV less cost to sell) and $595,000 (value in use) = $670,000.
  • Result: carrying value $720,000 > recoverable amount $670,000 → impaired by $50,000.

TipInstructor's Note: why the *higher* number, not the more conservative (lower) one:

it's tempting to think "impairment = conservatism = pick the lower/worse number," but that's backwards here, and your textbook makes this explicit: "it is not intended to capture the worst-case scenario... the reason... is that Red Rocket's management can always choose the better of the two alternatives." Management genuinely has the choice to sell the machines rather than keep operating them, so the relevant benchmark is the best available alternative, not the worst one. Conservatism shows up in a different place: the asset itself still gets written down (rather than left at cost), not in cherry-picking the gloomier of the two recoverable-amount estimates.

3. Recognition of impairment

If only one asset is involved, it bears the whole loss. If a CGU has multiple assets (like Red Rocket), the loss must first be allocated among them.

a. Allocating impairment loss within a CGU

ImportantIAS 36.105: the allocation floor is a THREE-part test [Audit fix]

Your textbook's Red Rocket Racers example only ever needed one leg of this rule, so it presents a simplified one-legged version. The full rule:

In allocating an impairment loss, an entity shall not reduce the carrying amount of an individual asset below the HIGHEST of:

Floor component Applies when
(a) Its fair value less costs of disposal If measurable
(b) Its value in use If determinable
(c) Zero Always

Why this matters: if an exam gives you a per-asset value in use that exceeds that asset's FVLCD, the simplified rule produces the wrong floor. Machine B in the Red Rocket example happened to have FVLCD as its binding floor, do not generalize from that single case.

[VERIFY: paragraph reference IAS 36.105 against the CPA Canada Handbook Part I. The three-part floor is supplied per your explicit instruction; the paragraph number has not been independently re-confirmed.]

General rule (IAS 36): allocate in proportion to net carrying amounts (since, by definition, individual fair values usually aren't separately available within a CGU, if they were, the assets wouldn't need to be grouped together in the first place).

Two exceptions: 1. If the CGU includes goodwill, the loss hits goodwill first, before any allocation to identifiable assets, reflecting the idea that impairment more likely originated in goodwill than in specific identifiable (tangible/intangible) assets. 2. If an individual asset within the CGU can be shown to be unimpaired (i.e., its own recoverable amount, where identifiable, still exceeds its carrying amount), no loss is allocated to it, the loss that would have gone to it gets reallocated to the other assets instead.

Exhibit 10-10: Red Rocket's CGU summary

Machine A Machine B Machine C CGU Total
Net carrying amount $216,000 $432,000 $72,000 $720,000
Fair value less cost to sell 170,000 450,000 50,000 670,000
Value in use 595,000
Recoverable amount 670,000
Impairment loss for CGU 50,000

Exhibit 10-11: Initial (general-rule) allocation, in proportion to carrying amounts

Machine A Machine B Machine C CGU Total
Net carrying amount $216,000 $432,000 $72,000 $720,000
% of total 30% 60% 10% 100%
Loss allocated (% × $50,000) $15,000 $30,000 $5,000 $50,000
Net carrying amount after $201,000 $402,000 $67,000 $670,000

But wait, check Machine B against the exception: Machine B's own recoverable-amount-relevant figure (fair value less cost to sell = $450,000) is already above its post-allocation carrying amount of $402,000, in fact, it was already above its pre-allocation carrying amount of $432,000 too. Machine B was never actually impaired on its own. So the $30,000 initially allocated to it must be reallocated to Machines A and C.

Exhibit 10-12: Corrected allocation, accounting for Machine B being unimpaired

Machine A Machine B Machine C CGU Total
Initial allocation
Net carrying amount $216,000 $432,000 $72,000 $720,000
% of total 30% 60% 10% 100%
Loss initially allocated $15,000 nil* $5,000 $20,000
Reallocation of Machine B's would-be loss
Net carrying amount (A + C only) $216,000 n/a $72,000 $288,000
% of total 75% n/a 25% 100%
Loss reallocated $22,500 n/a $7,500 $30,000
Summary
Net carrying amount before impairment $216,000 $432,000 $72,000 $720,000
Loss initially allocated + reallocated (37,500) 0 (12,500) (50,000)
Net carrying amount after impairment $178,500 $432,000 $59,500 $670,000

*Nil because carrying amount should never be written down below the asset's own recoverable amount ($450,000).

TipInstructor's Note: how to spot this exception on a problem set:

after doing the straightforward proportional allocation, always sanity-check each asset's resulting carrying amount against any individually-known recoverable-amount information for that asset. If an asset's allocated-down carrying amount would fall below a number you do know for that specific asset (like Machine B's $450,000 fair-value-less-cost-to-sell), that's your signal the simple proportional split isn't valid and you need the two-step reallocation shown above. This is genuinely one of the more fiddly calculations in the whole course, expect it to show up as a multi-part problem, not a one-line question.

b. Journal entries to record the loss

Cost model (writedown = loss through income statement, hits retained earnings):

Exhibit 10-13: Red Rocket's impairment entries, cost model

Dr. Impairment loss—Machine A                37,500
    Cr. Accumulated depreciation—Machine A            37,500
Dr. Impairment loss—Machine C                12,500
    Cr. Accumulated depreciation—Machine C            12,500

Revaluation model: treated the same as a revaluation decrease, loss goes through profit or loss unless the asset has an existing revaluation surplus, in which case the loss first eliminates that surplus (through OCI), and only the remainder hits net income. (This is conceptually consistent: impairment is literally "the downward half" of revaluation.)

Illustration: suppose Machine A has a $20,000 revaluation surplus, Machine C does not.

Exhibit 10-14: Red Rocket's impairment entries, revaluation model (differences from Exhibit 10-13 in bold)

Dr. OCI—revaluation surplus—Machine A        20,000
Dr. Impairment loss—Machine A                17,500
    Cr. Accumulated depreciation—Machine A            37,500
Dr. Impairment loss—Machine C                12,500
    Cr. Accumulated depreciation—Machine C            12,500

For Machine A: the $37,500 impairment first eliminates the $20,000 surplus (OCI), with the remaining $17,500 flowing through net income, the exact same "split at zero" logic from Part A's Exhibit 10-5, scenario (iii).

c. Adjusting depreciation after impairment

Impairment lowers carrying value → lowers the remaining depreciable amount → prospective adjustment to future depreciation (same mechanics as Chapter 8's depreciation-estimate-change treatment).

ImportantIAS 36.124: goodwill impairment can NEVER be reversed [Audit fix]

Your source text does not mention this carve-out anywhere. I grep-checked the full chapter file to confirm. The section below correctly states that IFRS permits impairment reversals, but that statement is incomplete without this exception:

An impairment loss recognized for goodwill shall NOT be reversed in a subsequent period, under any circumstances.

Asset type Reversal permitted under IFRS? Cap
PPE, finite-life intangibles Yes Carrying amount that would have existed absent the impairment
Indefinite-life intangibles Yes Same cap
Goodwill NO, never n/a
Anything, under ASPE NO, never n/a

The reasoning: any subsequent increase in the recoverable amount of a CGU containing goodwill is presumed to be internally generated goodwill, and internally generated goodwill can never be recognized as an asset (see Chapter 9). Reversing would therefore back-door an unrecognizable asset onto the balance sheet.

Exam framing: a fact pattern that impairs goodwill and then recovers is testing exactly one thing, whether you know the answer is "no reversal," not "reverse up to the cap."

[VERIFY: paragraph reference IAS 36.124 against the CPA Canada Handbook Part I. The prohibition is supplied per your explicit instruction; the paragraph number has not been independently re-confirmed.]

d. Reversals of impairment

IFRS allows reversing a prior impairment if the asset's value recovers later, but the reversal is capped: the carrying amount after reversal can never exceed what the carrying amount would have been had no impairment ever occurred (accounting for the depreciation that would have continued in the meantime). This is subtly different from simply "capped at the original loss amount", because depreciation itself changed between the impairment and any later reversal.

Illustration: Machine C: cost $120,000, zero residual, 10-year useful life, straight-line ($12,000/year pre-impairment). Impaired at the end of Year 4.

Exhibit 10-15: Recomputing Machine C's post-impairment depreciation

Cost $120,000
Accumulated depreciation, end of Year 4 $48,000
+ Addition due to impairment 12,500
Accumulated depreciation, beginning of Year 5 (60,500)
Net carrying amount (= remaining depreciable amount) 59,500
Remaining useful life, beginning of Year 5 6 years
Annual depreciation $9,917

Exhibit 10-16: Full comparison: with vs. without impairment, and maximum reversal each year

Yr Gross Without impairment: Dep. Accum. dep. Net CV With impairment: Dep. Accum. dep. Net CV Max. impairment reversal
1 $120,000 $12,000 $12,000 $108,000 $12,000 $12,000 $108,000 n/a
2 120,000 12,000 24,000 96,000 12,000 24,000 96,000 n/a
3 120,000 12,000 36,000 84,000 12,000 36,000 84,000 n/a
4 120,000 12,000 48,000 72,000 12,000 60,500* 59,500* n/a
5 120,000 12,000 60,000 60,000 9,917 70,417 49,583 $10,417
6 120,000 12,000 72,000 48,000 9,916 80,333 39,667 8,333
7 120,000 12,000 84,000 36,000 9,917 90,250 29,750 6,250
8 120,000 12,000 96,000 24,000 9,917 100,167 19,833 4,167
9 120,000 12,000 108,000 12,000 9,916 110,083 9,917 2,083
10 120,000 12,000 120,000 0 9,917 120,000 0 0

*See Exhibit 10-13 for the impairment loss calculation.

Reading the "maximum reversal" column: in Year 5, the gap between "would've been worth $60,000 without impairment" and "actually worth $49,583 with impairment" is $10,417, that's the absolute ceiling on how much could be reversed that specific year, even if fair value fully recovered. The gap shrinks over time (down to $0 by Year 10) simply because both paths converge to $0 net carrying value at the end of the asset's useful life regardless.

Exhibit 10-17 reconstructed: Maximum impairment reversal, graphically

Net carrying
amount
$120,000 ┤●
         │ ╲___
 $96,000 ┤     ╲___              ┄┄┄┄ Without impairment (dashed, higher line)
         │         ╲___      ┄┄┄┄
 $72,000 ┤             ╲__ ┄┄┄
         │            ┄┄┄╲________            ▲
 $48,000 ┤         ┄┄┄        ╲________        │ Maximum reversal =
         │      ┄┄┄                    ╲______  │ vertical gap between
 $24,000 ┤   ┄┄┄  With impairment (solid,        │ the two lines
         │┄┄┄      lower line)                ╲__▼_
      $0 ┼──────────────────────────────────────────●
         0   1   2   3   4   5   6   7   8   9  10  Year

The key visual takeaway: the solid ("with impairment") line can never cross above the dashed ("without impairment") line, that's the reversal cap, made visual.

4. Differences between impairment and revaluation

Conceptually, impairment = "the downward half" of revaluation. Does that mean following the revaluation model automatically satisfies impairment requirements? No, not automatically. The implementation details genuinely differ:

Factor Revaluation Impairment
Unit of measure By asset By cash generating unit
Frequency At regular intervals per the speed of price changes; not necessarily annual Annual if indefinite-life intangible/goodwill; annual search for indications otherwise
Value measurement Fair value; does not consider disposal costs Fair value less cost to sell, or value in use, whichever is higher

Practical implication: enterprises using the revaluation model still generally need a separate impairment assessment. Only when the differences are immaterial for the specific enterprise/assets can revalued assets skip separate impairment testing.

5. Impairment standards in ASPE

Four significant IFRS/ASPE differences: 1. ASPE also uses "indications of impairment" as a trigger, but does not require an annual search for such indications. 2. ASPE's recoverable amount (for finite-life assets) = undiscounted cash flows from use, impaired if carrying amount exceeds this. But the impairment loss amount is based on carrying amount vs. fair value (which does reflect discounted cash flows), a slightly inconsistent-feeling two-step test, worth noting carefully. 3. ASPE does not permit reversing impairments, ever. 4. Since ASPE doesn't permit the revaluation model at all, impairment losses always flow through profit or loss, never OCI.

6. Economic roles of impairment

a. Communicating information to users. Alerts readers to declining asset values/adverse conditions. But this alone doesn't fully explain the asymmetry (why no upward revaluations for cost-model assets), full information conveyance would actually be better served by allowing both directions (i.e., the revaluation model), so this can't be the only justification.

b. Supporting efficient contracting / reducing earnings management. Debt contracts/covenants often reference asset values (e.g., debt-to-assets ratios); creditors bear the downside of asset declines but don't share the upside, so they prefer a one-sided (impairment-only) standard. Executive compensation tied to reported income creates an incentive to inflate asset values if gains were freely recognized, which is exactly why even upward revaluations (Part A) flow through OCI, not net income.

c. Facilitating rational decision-making. People (including managers) have a well-documented aversion to recognizing losses, whether real or merely on paper. Overstated (un-impaired) carrying values can make management reluctant to dispose of assets, purely to avoid booking an accounting loss, even when disposal is the economically correct choice.

Worked example: Salmo Company: old machine, carrying value (no impairment recorded) $200,000, fair value $160,000, negligible disposal cost. Replacing it with a newer machine has a positive NPV of $20,000. Should Salmo replace it? Selling the old machine yields $160,000 (its fair value) against a $200,000 carrying amount → an accounting loss of $40,000 on disposal, which exceeds the $20,000 NPV benefit, tempting management to skip the replacement purely to avoid booking that loss.

But this accounting loss is irrelevant to the actual capital-budgeting decision, the $20,000 NPV already incorporates all relevant cash flows. Salmo should proceed. If Salmo had first written the machine down to $160,000 via impairment, the replacement decision would trigger no significant accounting loss at all, removing the psychological/reporting barrier to making the economically correct call.

TipInstructor's Note:

this Salmo example is genuinely one of the best illustrations in your whole course of why accounting rules can shape real business decisions, not just record them after the fact. It directly echoes the Chapter 8 "does depreciation policy matter?" discussion your text cross-references, the underlying finance principle (sunk costs and historical carrying values are irrelevant to forward-looking NPV decisions) is correct in theory, but real managers do get anchored on avoiding a visible reported loss. Impairment testing, by forcing the write-down before the disposal decision is even made, removes that psychological trap. If you take one "why does this matter for a finance career" lesson from Part B, this is it.

CheckpointCP10-3: How frequently should PPE, intangible assets, and goodwill be tested for impairment?

A: Depends on finite vs. indefinite life. Indefinite-life intangibles and goodwill: annually. Everything else: only when there are indications of impairment.

CheckpointCP10-4: What two values determine the recoverable amount?

A: (i) Fair value less cost to sell, and (ii) value in use.


Part C: Investment Property

(LO 10-4, first half)

Why a special standard (IAS 40)? "Investment property" suggests assets held to earn profit directly, like a financial investment (interest/dividends plus price appreciation). Investment property earns rental income and capital appreciation directly, in contrast to ordinary PPE (which earns profit indirectly, through producing goods/services) and inventory (which earns profit only on sale, not while held).

TipInstructor's Note:

a simple three-way sorting test for "is this real estate PPE, inventory, or investment property?", ask why the company holds it. Using it to run the business (a factory, a store, head office) → PPE. Planning to sell it as part of ordinary business (a home builder's unsold houses) → inventory. Just collecting rent or waiting for it to appreciate, with no operational use → investment property. The same physical building can fall into any of these three categories depending purely on management's intent, which is exactly why Part C later spends so much time on transfers between categories.

1. Definition and scope

Investment property: land or buildings held to earn rental income or for capital appreciation. Excludes: property used in supplying goods/services or for admin purposes (→ PPE, per IAS 16) and property held for sale in the ordinary course of business (→ inventory, per IAS 2).

2. Subsequent measurement

Initial recognition is at cost (including transaction costs, legal fees, etc.), same as PPE. Subsequent measurement offers a choice:

TrapTHRESHOLD: Quality of Earnings

IAS 40 offers a choice of the cost model or fair value model, applied to all of an enterprise's investment property, not selectively (same anti-cherry-picking logic as Part A's "by class" rule). If the cost model is chosen, fair values must still be disclosed in the notes.

The fair value model here is similar to, but distinct from, Part A's revaluation model:

  1. Gains/losses always flow through profit or loss, never OCI (recall Part 0's map: this is the specialized-standard pattern, no OCI option at all).
  2. No depreciation is recorded under the fair value model, the fair value estimate already reflects any decline in quality/useful life, and value changes hit income directly, so a separate depreciation charge would effectively double-count the decline.
  3. Fair values must reflect actual market conditions at the balance sheet date (IAS 40 ¶40), implying investment property under the fair value model needs annual fair value updates, unlike PPE revaluation, which can be less frequent if fair values move gradually.

Exhibit 10-18: IAS 40 (Investment Property) vs. IAS 16 (PPE)

Model Issue IAS 40 Investment Property IAS 16 PPE
Cost model Measurement At cost less depreciation At cost less depreciation
Fair value disclosure Required Not required
Depreciation Required Required
Fair value model (revaluation model for IAS 16) Measurement At fair value At fair value
Frequency Annual Annual or less frequently
Unrealized gains/losses Always through profit or loss Through OCI or profit/loss (depends on cumulative history)
Depreciation None Required

Worked example: Arbutus Homes' Laurel Street property

Arbutus Homes (operates communal senior housing, incl. food/cleaning/paramedical services) acquires an apartment building for $20 million ($8M land, $12M building) at the start of 20X1. Building useful life: 20 years. Year-end appraisals: building: $11.78M (20X1), $10.98M (20X2), $13M (20X3); land: $9M (20X1), $9.5M (20X2), $10M (20X3).

Scenario 1, held for use (management intends the property for actual seniors-housing operations) → treated as PPE under IAS 16:

Exhibit 10-19: Arbutus Homes' Laurel Street property as PPE

20X1 20X2 20X3
Cost model Building, cost $12,000,000 $12,000,000 $12,000,000
Building, accum. depr. (600,000) (1,200,000) (1,800,000)
Building, net 11,400,000 10,800,000 10,200,000
Land 8,000,000 8,000,000 8,000,000
Total land + building $19,400,000 $18,800,000 $18,200,000
Depreciation expense $600,000 $600,000 $600,000
Revaluation model (elimination method) Building, gross $11,780,000 $10,980,000 $13,000,000
Building, accum. depr. 0 0 0
Building, net 11,780,000 10,980,000 13,000,000
Land 9,000,000 9,500,000 10,000,000
Total land + building $20,780,000 $20,480,000 $23,000,000
Depreciation expense* $600,000 $620,000 $610,000
Revaluation reserve, building** $380,000 $200,000 $2,830,000
Revaluation reserve, land 1,000,000 1,500,000 2,000,000
Total revaluation reserve 1,380,000 1,700,000 4,830,000
Cumulative (decrease) in retained earnings (600,000) (1,220,000) (1,830,000)
Net effect on equity $780,000 $480,000 $3,000,000

*Depreciation = beginning-of-year depreciable amount ÷ remaining useful life: 20X1: $12,000,000 ÷ 20 = $600,000; 20X2: $11,780,000 ÷ 19 = $620,000; 20X3: $10,980,000 ÷ 18 = $610,000.

**Revaluation reserve = beginning reserve + current-year adjustment. 20X1: $0 + ($11,780,000 − ($12,000,000 − $600,000)) = $0 + $380,000 = $380,000. 20X2: $380,000 + ($10,980,000 − ($11,780,000 − $620,000)) = $380,000 − $180,000 = $200,000. 20X3: $200,000 + ($13,000,000 − ($10,980,000 − $610,000)) = $200,000 + $2,630,000 = $2,830,000.

TipInstructor's Note: how to actually compute that revaluation-reserve formula by hand:

the term ($12,000,000 − $600,000) inside the 20X1 line is simply "what the net carrying amount would have been under the ordinary cost model, after that year's depreciation, before any revaluation." So the formula is really: this year's actual fair value minus what the asset would have been worth under plain cost-model depreciation = this year's revaluation adjustment, which then gets added to the running (cumulative) reserve balance. It looks intimidating with all the nested parentheses, but it's the exact same "actual vs. what-cost-model-would-say" comparison every single year.

Scenario 2, held for capital appreciation (management could sell if the price is right; could continue providing housing by renting the space back from a buyer) → treated as investment property under IAS 40:

Exhibit 10-20: Arbutus Homes' Laurel Street property as investment property

20X1 20X2 20X3
Cost model (identical to the PPE cost model above, plus footnote disclosure of fair values)
Fair value model Building, net $11,780,000 $10,980,000 $13,000,000
Land 9,000,000 9,500,000 10,000,000
Total land + building 20,780,000 20,480,000 23,000,000
Opening carrying value 20,000,000 20,780,000 20,480,000
Gain/(loss) on fair value change $780,000 $(300,000) $2,520,000
Cumulative increase in retained earnings = net effect on equity $780,000 $480,000 $3,000,000

The punchline, compare the "net effect on equity" row across both exhibits: it's identical ($780,000 / $480,000 / $3,000,000) whether you use the PPE revaluation model or the investment property fair value model! Only the composition differs: the PPE revaluation model splits the effect into a revaluation surplus (OCI-fed) partly offset by retained-earnings reduction (from depreciation); the investment property fair value model routes the entire fair value change through retained earnings via profit or loss (with no depreciation at all).

TipInstructor's Note:

this is a genuinely elegant result and worth pausing on, it shows that classification (PPE vs. investment property) changes where in equity the numbers show up and how the story reads (OCI/surplus vs. straight net income), but doesn't change the total wealth effect on the company. This is a good exam-answer insight if you're ever asked "does it matter whether this property is classified as PPE or investment property?", the honest answer is "yes, for presentation, income statement volatility, and depreciation expense, but not for the bottom-line equity impact."

3. Transfers into and out of investment property

TrapTHRESHOLD: Quality of Earnings

Since the three classifications (PPE, inventory, investment property) have different measurement bases, IFRS needs rules to stop earnings management via reclassification. Without such rules, a company could take appreciated PPE (carried at cost, so the appreciation is invisible) and simply relabel it as investment property (carried at fair value), instantly recognizing the gain in income, purely through a paperwork reclassification, with nothing real having changed operationally.

a. Change-in-use requirement. IAS 40 ¶57 requires an actual change in use to justify any transfer, e.g., switching from renting out a property to occupying it yourself, or vice versa. You can't just "decide to reclassify" without a genuine change in how the property is actually used.

b. Transfers under the cost model: simplest case, carry over the pre-transfer cost/carrying amount (and any accumulated depreciation) unchanged into the new classification. (Not reset to a fresh "as-if-purchased-today" basis.)

c. Transfers under the fair value model (direction matters): - Out of investment property → PPE or inventory: revalue to fair value at the transfer date (change in value through profit or loss); that fair value becomes the new cost basis going forward. - From inventory → into investment property: revalue inventory to fair value at transfer date, change in value through profit or loss. - From PPE → into investment property: apply IAS 16 up to the transfer date (record depreciation/impairment as usual through that date), then revalue per IAS 16's revaluation model, regardless of whether the enterprise had been using the cost or revaluation model for that property beforehand. The revalued amount becomes the new investment-property cost basis.

The common thread: all transfers end up recorded at fair value on the transfer date, the interesting part is how the pre-transfer gain/loss is treated, which depends on the direction and the prior accounting policy.

Illustration 1, transfer OUT of investment property (fair value model) into PPE. Continuing Arbutus Homes: suppose the property was initially classified as investment property (fair value model), and at the start of 20X3 management decides it'll now be used operationally (reclassify to PPE):

Exhibit 10-21: Transfer out of investment property into PPE

Dr. PPE—Laurel Street building              10,980,000
    Cr. Investment property—building                 10,980,000
Dr. PPE—Laurel Street land                   9,500,000
    Cr. Investment property—land                      9,500,000

Straightforward, just relabel at the existing (already fair-value-based) carrying amount, since no revaluation trigger applies to an outward transfer beyond what fair-value-model accounting had already captured.

Illustration 2, transfer INTO investment property, property was carried at COST as PPE. Suppose instead Arbutus Homes initially classified Laurel Street as PPE (cost model), reclassified it as investment property at the start of 20X3, then sold it later that year for $22 million ($12M building + $10M land allocation).

Exhibit 10-22: Transfer from PPE (cost model) into investment property, then sale

Step 1, revalue to fair value at the transfer date (per IAS 16's revaluation rules, since this is a PPE-to-investment-property transfer):

Dr. PPE—building                    180,000
    Cr. Revaluation reserve—building (OCI)      180,000
Dr. PPE—land                      1,500,000
    Cr. Revaluation reserve—land (OCI)         1,500,000

Step 2, record the reclassification:

Dr. Investment property—building          10,980,000
Dr. Accumulated depreciation—building       1,200,000
    Cr. PPE—building                                 12,180,000
Dr. Investment property—land                9,500,000
    Cr. PPE—land                                      9,500,000

Step 3, record the eventual sale for $22 million:

Dr. Cash                                   22,000,000
    Cr. Investment property—building                 10,980,000
    Cr. Investment property—land                       9,500,000
    Cr. Gain on sale of investment property             1,520,000
Dr. Revaluation reserve—building (AOCI)        180,000
Dr. Revaluation reserve—land (AOCI)          1,500,000
    Cr. Retained earnings                              1,680,000

The critical final entry: the revaluation reserves created at the transfer moment get moved straight to retained earnings, bypassing profit or loss entirely ("not recycled through income", direct callback to Chapter 3's OCI recycling concept, except here it's explicitly a non-recycling case).

Illustration 3, same transfer, but the PPE had been carried under the revaluation model (not cost) beforehand:

Exhibit 10-23: Transfer from PPE (revaluation model) into investment property, then sale

Step 1: No entry needed, the transfer happens at the start of the year, and the asset was already revalued as of the prior year-end.

Step 2, record reclassification:

Dr. Investment property—building        10,980,000
    Cr. PPE—building                              10,980,000
Dr. Investment property—land              9,500,000
    Cr. PPE—land                                   9,500,000

Step 3, record the sale for $22 million:

Dr. Cash                                  22,000,000
    Cr. Investment property—building                10,980,000
    Cr. Investment property—land                      9,500,000
    Cr. Gain on sale of investment property            1,520,000
Dr. Revaluation reserve—building (AOCI)       200,000
Dr. Revaluation reserve—land (AOCI)         1,500,000
    Cr. Retained earnings                             1,700,000

Compare the building's revaluation reserve transferred to retained earnings: $200,000 here vs. $180,000 in Exhibit 10-22. The $20,000 difference exists because the revaluation model (Exhibit 10-23) had been charging higher depreciation ($620,000 in 20X2, per Exhibit 10-19's revaluation-model row) than the cost model (Exhibit 10-22, $600,000/year flat), that extra $20,000 of depreciation expense had already reduced retained earnings while the property was still classified as PPE, so the larger $200,000 revaluation-reserve transfer at sale exactly compensates for that additional depreciation charge taken earlier. Nothing is lost or gained overall, it's purely a timing/bookkeeping reconciliation.

TipInstructor's Note:

these transfer rules (Exhibits 10-21 through 10-23) are genuinely some of the most fiddly journal-entry sequences in the whole textbook, if this appears on an assignment or exam, work through it in the same three-step order every time (revalue if needed → reclassify → handle the eventual sale/disposal), and always ask "was this asset previously under cost or revaluation, and which direction is the transfer going?" before picking which of the three patterns applies. Don't try to memorize the dollar figures, memorize the decision tree (which of the three scenario patterns applies), then work the specific numbers through from there.

CheckpointCP10-5: Identify three ways the fair value model (investment property) differs from the revaluation model (PPE).

A: (i) Fair value model requires annual estimates; revaluation model can be less frequent. (ii) Fair value model: adjustments always through net income; revaluation model: OCI or net income depending on cumulative history. (iii) Fair value model requires no depreciation; revaluation model still requires depreciation.

CheckpointCP10-6: How should a change in use (from held-for-use to held for income/appreciation) be recorded?

A: As a transfer from PPE to investment property: account under IAS 16 up to the transfer date, then revalue per IAS 16. The revalued amount becomes the new cost recognized in investment property (then accounted for under IAS 40 going forward).


Part D: Agriculture

(LO 10-4, second half)

Why agriculture gets its own standard (IAS 41 / ASPE Section 3041): two unique features. First, agriculture involves constant cycles of change (growth, degeneration/decay, reproduction) that need active management (nutrients, water, etc.) and measurement of quantity/quality changes. Second, historical cost is almost meaningless for biological items, your text's example: the cost of seedlings is a tiny fraction of a mature apple tree's value. So IAS 41 generally requires fair value for biological items.

TipInstructor's Note:

think about why this is such a different problem from, say, a building appreciating in value (Part C). A building's value changes because of external market forces (location desirability, interest rates, etc.) (the building itself doesn't fundamentally "become a different thing." A seedling becoming an apple tree is a genuine, ongoing physical/biological transformation) the asset itself is actively changing what it is, continuously, which historical cost (a single point-in-time number) simply cannot capture in any meaningful way.

1. Definition and scope

Agricultural activity: the management by an entity of the biological transformation of biological assets for sale, or for conversion into agricultural produce or additional biological assets.

Two parts of this definition matter: - Active management is required, this includes fish farming and tree plantations, but excludes fishing the open ocean or logging unmanaged forests (no "management" of a biological transformation process is occurring in those cases). - Scope extends only to the point of harvest, not beyond. Post-harvest processing is covered by other standards (inventories: IAS 2; revenue: IFRS 15, referenced in your text as IAS 18 which was its predecessor).

Exhibit 10-24 reconstructed: Scope of IAS 41

Applicable standards:  ◄────── IAS 41 Agriculture ──────►│◄── Other standards (e.g., IAS 2) ──►

Activities:            ◄──────── Agricultural activities ────────►│◄── Non-agricultural activities ──►

                    Reproduction ──╮
                                    ├──► Growth/Degeneration ──► Harvest ──► Post-harvest processing ──► End of processing
                    Acquire         │
                    biological ─────╯
                    asset

Relevant assets:      Biological assets    │    Agricultural produce    │    Processed products
Examples:             Vines, dairy cattle, │    Grapes, milk, logs      │    Juice, jelly, wine,
                       trees                │                            │    yogurt, cheese, lumber, paper

Biological asset: a living animal or plant. Agricultural produce: the harvested product of biological assets.

2. Accounting for biological assets and agricultural produce

Unlike the general recognition criteria for other assets (which reference only cost), IAS 41 ¶10 brings in fair value explicitly at the recognition stage:

¶10 An entity shall recognize a biological asset or agricultural produce when, and only when: (a) the entity controls the asset as a result of past events; (b) it is probable that future economic benefits associated with the asset will flow to the entity; and (c) the fair value or cost of the asset can be measured reliably.

Compare condition (c) to PPE's (Chapter 8) and intangible assets' (Chapter 9) equivalent condition: "the cost of the asset can be measured reliably." Agriculture is the first (and only) asset category in your course where fair value is written directly into the recognition criterion itself, not just as a later measurement choice.

a. Agricultural produce: at harvest, estimate fair value less point-of-sale costs, that net figure is what gets recorded.

b. Biological assets: measured at fair value less point-of-sale costs both at initial recognition and every subsequent balance sheet date. The only exception: an enterprise can use cost (less depreciation) instead, but only if it demonstrates it cannot reliably measure fair value, meaning there's a presumption in favour of fair value, and the enterprise bears the burden of proof to rebut it. Critically: this exception can only be elected at initial recognition, you can't start with fair value and later switch to cost claiming unreliability. (The reverse is allowed: start at cost due to unreliability, later switch to fair value once it becomes reliably measurable.)

Bearer plants, a genuinely tricky case, explained with your text's own example. Contrast a dairy cow (easy to transport, sell, and price, reliable fair value) against a mature fruit-bearing tree (you cannot uproot it without destroying its roots, its value is literally "attached to the land," and you'd only get a reliable fair value if the whole farm/land were sold, not the tree alone).

Bearer plant: a biological asset used only to grow agricultural produce over multiple periods, and which is itself unlikely to ever be sold as agricultural produce.

Because farmers genuinely couldn't obtain reliable fair values for bearer plants in practice, the IASB amended IAS 41 in 2014 (effective January 1, 2014) to exclude bearer plants from the fair value requirement entirely, they're now accounted for like ordinary PPE instead.

TipInstructor's Note:

this amendment is a nice real-world example of a standard-setter responding to a genuine, demonstrated practical problem (farmers couldn't reliably fair-value trees/vines) rather than dogmatically insisting on a theoretically "purer" measurement basis. It's also directly relevant to the Andrew Peller example below, notice how the vines themselves end up under PPE/IAS 16, while the grapes on those vines stay under IAS 41's fair-value regime. Same vineyard, two different standards, depending on which specific asset you're looking at.

c. Gains and losses. All fair-value-driven gains/losses go through profit or loss, not OCI (again, the specialized-standard pattern from Part 0's map), because they arise from the enterprise's normal operating activities. Examples straight from your text: newborn chicks/lambs/calves → likely gains; a banana plantation hit by Panama disease (a fungus) → likely a loss.

Exhibit 10-25: Real example: Andrew Peller Limited (Canadian winery, ticker ADW-A, Canadian Securities Exchange)

Fiscal year ended March 31, 2023 (figures in $000s):

2023 2022
Biological assets (current assets) $2,920 $2,045
Sales 382,140 373,944
Cost of goods sold 240,248 234,952

Note 2 accounting policy excerpts: "The consolidated financial statements have been prepared under the historical cost convention, except for derivatives, which are measured at fair value, and biological assets, which are measured at fair value less costs to sell." Cost of goods sold "includes the cost of finished goods inventories sold during the year, inventory writedowns, and revaluations of agricultural produce to fair value less costs to sell at the point of harvest." Inventories use weighted average cost (calculated separately by import wine, domestic wine, and spirits, by varietal and vintage year) at the lower of cost and net realizable value (this is the ordinary IAS 2 inventory rule from Chapter 6, applied to harvested grapes once they've become inventory). Grapes grown on Company-controlled vineyards, once part of inventory, are measured at fair value less costs to sell at the point of harvest. Biological assets specifically (unharvested grapes) are measured at fair value, "which approximates cost as there has been minimal biological transformation since the initial cost incurred." At harvest, fair value is determined "by reference to local market prices for grapes of a similar quality and the same varietal." Gains/losses from fair value changes are recognized in the income statement in the period they arise.

Note 6, biological assets roll-forward:

2023 2022
Carrying amount, beginning of year $2,045 $2,815
Net increase in fair value less costs to sell (biological transformation) 7,957 7,896
Transferred to inventory on harvest (7,082) (8,666)
Biological assets, end of year $2,920 $2,045

Andrew Peller harvested $7,082 thousand of grapes in 2023 (2022: $8,666 thousand).

A subtlety worth noting: Andrew Peller classifies only unharvested grapes as "biological assets." Separately, its PP&E note discloses $31.1 million in "vines, vineyard land, and infrastructure" at March 31, 2023, carried at cost less accumulated amortization. This confirms Andrew Peller treats its vines themselves as bearer plants under IAS 16 (PPE), while only the grapes growing on those vines fall under IAS 41's fair-value regime. Same vineyard, two different standards for two different assets within it, exactly the bearer-plant distinction explained above, seen in a real annual report.

Focus on Data Analytics: Cluster Analysis for grape valuation

Determining a fair value for harvested grapes "by reference to local market prices for similar quality/varietal" sounds simple, but grape quality depends on a huge number of factors: climate, vine age, sugar content, yield control, harvest timing, rootstock, even soil type. Cluster analysis, a statistical technique for grouping similar objects by shared characteristics, helps here: feed in the quality-defining characteristics of grapes currently for sale in the market, and the analysis identifies which market grapes most closely resemble your own, giving you a defensible basis for the fair value estimate. Tools mentioned: Alteryx, or (for more flexibility) Python or R.

TipInstructor's Note:

the "sorting laundry" analogy your textbook uses (socks in one pile, shirts in another, but with way more categories and precision than a human could track by eye) is a genuinely good one for cluster analysis generally, not just for grapes, it's the same underlying technique used for customer segmentation in marketing analytics, credit-risk bucketing in lending, and plenty of other AFM-291-adjacent applications. Worth remembering as a general-purpose tool, not just a wine-industry trick.

CheckpointCP10-7: How does IAS 41 differentiate biological assets from agricultural produce?

A: Biological assets are still alive (pre-harvest); agricultural produce has been harvested.

CheckpointCP10-8: Which measurement basis does IAS 41 recommend for biological assets?

A: Fair value less point-of-sale costs, generally. Cost may be used only in exceptional cases where fair value cannot be reliably measured.


Part E: Non-Current Assets Held for Sale and Discontinued Operations

(LO 10-5)

Non-current assets are, by definition, meant to be held more than one year, but sometimes an enterprise decides to sell one before that year is up. IFRS 5 governs the transition period.

¶6 An entity shall classify a non-current asset (or disposal group) as held for sale if its carrying amount will be recovered principally through a sale transaction rather than through continuing use.

Disposal group: a group of assets and liabilities to be disposed of together in a single transaction (e.g., an entire subsidiary a company plans to sell, which would typically bundle both current and non-current assets and liabilities).

Two conditions must both be met: the asset must be available for immediate sale, AND expected to sell within one year of being classified as held for sale. If genuinely available for sale but market conditions mean a sale can't realistically be expected within a year, it stays classified as an ordinary (held-for-use) non-current asset.

In briefTHRESHOLD: Conceptual Framework

Once classified held for sale, the asset is measured at the lower of its carrying amount and fair value less cost to sell. Notice: value in use drops out entirely here, since the enterprise no longer intends to use the asset operationally for any meaningful further period, "value from continued use" simply isn't the relevant benchmark anymore.

Practically: this is essentially an impairment test using only the fair-value-less-cost-to-sell leg of the recoverable amount (never value in use), because continued use for its own sake isn't the plan. If impaired, the loss flows through net income or OCI following exactly the same cost-model/revaluation-model rules from Part B.

A genuinely debated wrinkle: depreciation/amortization stops entirely once an asset is classified held for sale. Arguments for: expected holding period is short (so the amount would be small anyway), and any real value decline from continued use just shows up later as a smaller gain/larger loss on the eventual sale. Argument against (your text explicitly flags this as "controversial"): not recording depreciation is inconsistent with the genuine decline in productive capacity that continued use causes.

TipInstructor's Note:

worth remembering this specific rule as a standalone fact, since it's an easy one to get backwards on an exam, students sometimes assume depreciation just continues as normal right up until the sale closes. It doesn't. The moment the "held for sale" classification criteria are met, depreciation/amortization stops, even if the actual sale hasn't happened yet.

Discontinued operations

Component of an entity: operations/cash flows clearly distinguishable (operationally and for reporting) from the rest of the entity, at least one CGU or combination of CGUs (e.g., a subsidiary or product division). Discontinued operations: a component that's been disposed of, or is classified held for sale, and (i) represents a separate major line of business or geographic area, or (ii) is part of a single coordinated disposal plan for such a line/area, or (iii) is a subsidiary acquired exclusively with a view to resale.

Required presentation/disclosure (since discontinued operations can be a significant chunk of total operations, and readers need to separate "what continues" from "what's going away" for forecasting purposes):

  1. A single after-tax amount on the statement of comprehensive income = net profit/loss from discontinued operations + gain/loss on disposal (if sold) or from impairment (if not yet sold).
  2. Disaggregate that single amount (face of statement or notes) into six components: revenue; expenses; pre-tax profit; income tax expense; gain/loss on disposal or impairment; income tax on that gain/loss.
  3. Disclose operating, investing, and financing cash flows of the discontinued operations (statement or notes).

Simplified exception: if a subsidiary was acquired specifically with the intent to resell it, its results would never have been part of "continuing operations" anyway, so IFRS 5 allows just the single after-tax amount from (1), skipping the detailed disaggregation in (2)/(3).

Exhibit 10-26: Real example: Rio Tinto PLC (2010 annual report)

Rio Tinto (British-Australian mining company) purchased Alcan Inc. (Canadian aluminum producer) in 2007.

Balance sheet excerpt (current assets, millions USD):

2010 2009
Inventories 4,756 4,889
Trade and other receivables 5,582 4,447
Loans to equity accounted units 110 168
Tax recoverable 542 501
Other financial assets 521 694
Cash and cash equivalents 9,948 4,233
Subtotal 21,459 14,932
Assets of disposal groups held for sale 1,706 4,782

Income statement excerpt (millions USD):

2010 2009
Profit before taxation 20,577 7,860
Taxation (5,296) (2,076)
Profit from continuing operations 15,281 5,784
Discontinued operations, loss after-tax (97) (449)
Profit for the year 15,184 5,335

Earnings per share (basic, USD):

2010 2009
Profit from continuing operations 7.35 3.02
Loss from discontinued operations (0.05) (0.26)
Profit for the year 7.30 2.76

Diluted EPS:

2010 2009
Profit from continuing operations 7.31 3.00
Loss from discontinued operations (0.05) (0.25)
Profit for the year 7.26 2.75

Note 19 (assets held for sale): at Dec. 31, 2010, held-for-sale assets/liabilities comprised Alcan's Engineered Products group (AEP), excluding the Cable Division, following an August 5, 2010 binding offer from Apollo Global Management and the Fonds Stratégique d'Investissement (FSI) to buy a 61% stake in AEP (excluding Cable). The divestment completed January 4, 2011. Terms were confidential.

TipInstructor's Note:

notice how much real disclosure discipline this one line item ("Assets of disposal groups held for sale: $1,706 million") actually requires behind the scenes, you're seeing a single balance sheet number, but Note 19 alone tells you the specific business unit, the buyer, the ownership stake being sold, and the completion date. This is a good illustration of why the disclosure requirements in this section (the six-way disaggregation, cash flow disclosure, etc.) exist: a bare number on the balance sheet face tells a reader almost nothing useful without this surrounding context.

CheckpointCP10-9: In what way is accounting for non-current assets held for sale similar to impairment accounting?

A: Held-for-sale assets are recorded at the lower of carrying value and fair value less cost to sell, essentially an impairment test that excludes value in use, since management plans to sell rather than continue using the asset.


Part F: Practical Illustration: Canadian Tire Corporation

Excerpts from Canadian Tire's 2022 financial statements, showing this chapter's standards applied in practice:

Issue Reference Key excerpt/discussion
Revaluations Note 2, Basis of preparation Discloses use of "the historical cost basis" except for specific items, implying no revaluation model used for non-current assets generally.
Impairment Note 3, Impairment of assets PPE, investment property, right-of-use assets, and finite-life intangibles are assessed for impairment indicators each period-end; if found, recoverable amount is estimated. Goodwill, indefinite-life intangibles, and not-yet-available-for-use intangibles are not amortized but tested for impairment at least annually (or whenever an indicator arises), allocated to CGUs (or CGU groups, such as the company's "banners" per Note 6 Operating Segments) since they don't generate independent cash flows themselves. A CGU = the smallest identifiable asset group whose continuing use generates largely independent cash inflows. Recoverable amount = higher of fair value less cost to sell and value in use (VIU); VIU discounts estimated future cash flows using a risk-premium-adjusted rate specific to each line of business, extrapolating up to 5 years plus a terminal value (perpetuity-discounted final year), with terminal growth based on the Bank of Canada's target inflation rate or a management-estimated line-specific rate.
Investment property Note 3, Investment property Property held to earn rental income and/or capital appreciation. Canadian Tire determined that properties provided to its Dealers, franchisees, and agents are NOT investment property (they relate to the company's own operating activities, determined partly by whether Canadian Tire provides significant ancillary services to the lessee). Property leased to third parties (other than Dealers/franchisees/agents) is investment property. Measured the same way as PP&E (i.e., cost model, consistent with the "no revaluation model" note above).
Agricultural activities — Not applicable to this company.
Held for sale — Only $2.6 million in "assets classified as held for sale", immaterial against over $11 billion total assets, hence minimal further disclosure.

TipInstructor's Note:

the investment-property line is a genuinely instructive real-world edge case: Canadian Tire's Dealer/franchisee network means the company owns a lot of retail real estate, and it had to draw an explicit, disclosed line between "this is really part of running our operating business" (PPE, even though a Dealer technically pays rent) versus "this is a pure landlord relationship with an unrelated third party" (investment property). The test they used, whether Canadian Tire provides "significant ancillary services" to the tenant, is a nice concrete illustration of the PPE-vs-investment-property judgment call from Part C's Instructor's Note above, applied by a real, large Canadian company.


Part G: Substantive Differences: IFRS vs. ASPE

Issue IFRS ASPE
Cost or revaluation model Choice, by asset class, for PPE/intangibles Cost model only
When to test for impairment Annual for indefinite-life intangibles/goodwill; indication-triggered for everything else Indication-triggered for all long-lived assets (PPE, intangibles, goodwill)
Annual search for indications Required Not referenced as an active requirement
Recoverable amount Higher of fair value less cost to sell and value in use Sum of undiscounted cash flows from use
Impairment loss amount Carrying amount − Recoverable amount Carrying amount − Fair value
Reversal of impairment Permitted if recoverable amount rises Not permitted, ever
Impairment under revaluation model First reduces any revaluation surplus, remainder to net income N/A (revaluation model not permitted), all impairment losses go through net income
Investment property Cost or fair value model choice, applied to all investment property; fair values disclosed if cost model chosen No specific guidance (fair value model not permitted), follow general PPE guidance
Agriculture IAS 41; emphasizes fair value for biological assets/produce Section 3041: excludes forestry (IAS 41 includes tree plantations); uses "agricultural inventories" (not "agricultural produce"); fair value model called the "net realizable value model"; productive biological assets measured at cost only (no fair value model available); agricultural inventories may use either cost or net-realizable-value model

Part H: Summary by Learning Objective

LO 10-1: Apply the revaluation model: IFRS allows choosing the revaluation model over cost for non-current assets with sufficiently reliable fair values. Depreciable assets use either the proportional or elimination method to handle accumulated depreciation; subsequent depreciation changes prospectively. Equity effects are asymmetric: positive cumulative adjustments → revaluation surplus (OCI); negative cumulative adjustments → profit or loss.

LO 10-2: Evaluate impairment testing needs/extent: search annually for impairment indications; test annually for goodwill/indefinite-life intangibles regardless of indications. Group interdependent-cash-flow assets into CGUs. An asset/CGU is impaired if carrying amount exceeds recoverable amount (higher of fair value less cost to sell, and value in use). Impairment = carrying amount − recoverable amount.

LO 10-3: Account for impairment: allocate a CGU's impairment loss proportionally by carrying value, except where allocation would push an asset's carrying amount below its own recoverable amount. Record the loss through income statement/retained earnings, unless a revaluation surplus exists (then through OCI to reduce that surplus first).

LO 10-4: Investment property and agriculture: investment property = held for rental income or capital appreciation; measured at cost or fair value (choice applies to all investment property); fair value model requires annual estimates, no depreciation. Transfer rules mitigate earnings management opportunities. Agricultural activities include acquisition, growth, reproduction, and production through harvest (not subsequent processing). Agricultural produce and biological assets measured at fair value less point-of-sale costs, except where fair value can't be reliably measured (cost model instead), once fair value is used, it continues to be used.

LO 10-5: Held for sale/discontinued operations: classify as held for sale if available for sale and expected to sell within one year. Test for impairment using fair value less cost to sell as the recoverable amount (not value in use). Enterprises disposing of (or planning to dispose of) a component of the entity must separately present/disclose discontinued operations' results.


Part I: Checkpoint Questions and Answers

CP10-1: Elimination method (resets accumulated depreciation to zero) vs. proportional method (adjusts gross carrying amount and accumulated depreciation by the same percentage).

CP10-2: Through net income when "under water" (cumulative revaluations below zero); through OCI when "above water" (cumulative revaluations above zero).

CP10-3: Indefinite-life intangibles and goodwill: annually. All other assets: when there are indications of impairment.

CP10-4: Fair value less cost to sell, and value in use.

CP10-5: (i) Fair value model needs annual estimates, revaluation model can be less frequent; (ii) fair value model always through net income, revaluation model through OCI or net income depending on cumulative history; (iii) fair value model requires no depreciation, revaluation model still requires it.

CP10-6: Account under IAS 16 up to the transfer date, then revalue per IAS 16; the revalued amount becomes the new investment-property cost basis under IAS 40.

CP10-7: Biological assets are alive (pre-harvest); agricultural produce has been harvested.

CP10-8: Fair value less point-of-sale costs, generally; cost only when fair value can't be reliably measured.

CP10-9: Recorded at the lower of carrying value and fair value less cost to sell, an impairment test excluding value in use, since management intends to sell rather than continue using the asset.


Additional Practice (supplementary, not from your textbook)

These two problems are my own construction, built for extra practice since this chapter has no PBL scenario available to you yet, clearly not textbook quotes or exhibits.

Practice Problem 1: Revaluation, both methods

Nakusp Industries owns equipment with gross carrying amount $200,000 and accumulated depreciation $50,000 (net carrying amount $150,000). A revaluation determines fair value is $180,000.

Work through both methods, then check below:

  • Fair value exceeds net carrying amount by: ($180,000 ÷ $150,000) − 1 = 20%.
  • Proportional method: gross carrying amount increases 20% → $200,000 × 1.20 = $240,000; accumulated depreciation increases 20% → $50,000 × 1.20 = $60,000; net = $240,000 − $60,000 = $180,000 ✓. Journal entry: Dr. Equipment $40,000 / Cr. Accum. dep. $10,000 / Cr. [P&L or OCI] $30,000.
  • Elimination method: accumulated depreciation resets to $0; gross carrying amount = net carrying amount = $180,000. Journal entry: Cr. Equipment $20,000 (i.e., gross carrying amount actually decreases from $200,000 to $180,000) / Dr. Accum. dep. $50,000 / Cr. [P&L or OCI] $30,000.
  • Check: both methods produce the same $30,000 net credit and the same $180,000 final net carrying amount, only the gross/accumulated-depreciation split differs, exactly as in the Quesnel Company example above.

Practice Problem 2: Impairment allocation with an unimpaired asset

A CGU contains two assets with net carrying amounts of $300,000 (Asset X) and $100,000 (Asset Y), total $400,000. The CGU's recoverable amount is determined to be $340,000, so there's a $60,000 impairment loss to allocate. Separately, it's known that Asset Y's own fair value less cost to sell is $95,000.

Work through the allocation, then check below:

  • Initial proportional allocation: Asset X = 75% of $400,000 → 75% × $60,000 = $45,000 loss; Asset Y = 25% → 25% × $60,000 = $15,000 loss.
  • Check Asset Y against its own known recoverable-amount information: post-allocation carrying amount would be $100,000 − $15,000 = $85,000, which is below its own fair-value-less-cost-to-sell of $95,000, this is not allowed (an asset's carrying amount shouldn't fall below its own individually-known recoverable amount).
  • Corrected: cap Asset Y's loss at $100,000 − $95,000 = $5,000 (bringing it exactly to $95,000, no lower). The remaining $15,000 − $5,000 = $10,000 that would have gone to Asset Y must be reallocated entirely to Asset X (the only other asset in the CGU): Asset X's total loss = $45,000 + $10,000 = $55,000.
  • Final check: Asset X carrying amount = $300,000 − $55,000 = $245,000; Asset Y = $100,000 − $5,000 = $95,000. Total = $245,000 + $95,000 = $340,000 ✓ (matches the CGU's recoverable amount exactly).

Executive Summary (One Page)

This chapter is about applying fair value to non-current assets in four distinct contexts, after two chapters (8 and 9) that used historical cost exclusively. The first context is the revaluation model (Part A), an optional alternative to the cost model for PPE and intangible assets, available only when fair value can be reliably measured (which rules out most intangibles in practice), applied consistently by asset class to prevent cherry-picking. Adjusting a depreciable asset's carrying value to fair value requires choosing between the proportional method (scaling gross cost and accumulated depreciation by the same percentage, preserving the asset's apparent age) and the elimination method (resetting accumulated depreciation to zero, making the asset look freshly purchased), neither is more "correct," and the choice is a matter of professional judgment. The offsetting equity entry follows an asymmetric rule best pictured graphically: cumulative gains for a specific asset accumulate in other comprehensive income as a revaluation surplus, while cumulative losses ("under water" assets) flow through net income, with any single year's adjustment potentially splitting between the two if it crosses the zero line. Depreciation is then recalculated prospectively based on the new carrying amount and remaining useful life.

The second context is impairment (Part B), which, unlike revaluation, is mandatory, reflecting the prudence/conservatism principle that assets shouldn't be overstated. The process runs through three stages: first defining cash generating units (the smallest asset groupings with largely independent cash flows) and determining whether a test is even required (automatic annually for goodwill and indefinite-life intangibles; otherwise only when specific indications of impairment exist); then comparing carrying value against the recoverable amount, defined as the higher of fair value less cost to sell and value in use, since management can always choose the better of selling versus continuing to use the asset; and finally recognizing any resulting loss, allocated proportionally across a CGU's assets except where doing so would push an individual asset below its own separately-known recoverable amount. Reversals of impairment are permitted under IFRS (capped at what the carrying amount would have been absent the original impairment) but never under ASPE, which also differs from IFRS in using undiscounted cash flows to test for impairment (while still using discounted fair value to measure the loss itself) and in never permitting the revaluation model at all. Beyond mechanical compliance, impairment plays real economic roles: communicating deteriorating conditions to users, supporting creditors' one-sided interest in asset-value declines under debt covenants, and, perhaps most practically, removing the psychological and reported-earnings barrier that might otherwise make management reluctant to dispose of an economically obsolete asset purely to avoid booking a large one-time accounting loss.

The remaining three contexts each apply fair value through a specialized, narrower standard, and in every one of them, unlike ordinary PPE revaluation, fair value changes flow exclusively through net income rather than ever touching OCI. Investment property (Part C) (land or buildings held for rental income or capital appreciation, distinct from owner-occupied PPE and from inventory) offers a similar cost-versus-fair-value choice, but transfers between these three classifications require a genuine change in use and follow specific rules designed to prevent earnings management through simple reclassification. Agriculture (Part D) is unique in writing fair value directly into the asset recognition criterion itself, reflecting the reality that historical cost bears almost no relationship to a living, biologically transforming asset's actual worth, with a carved-out exception for bearer plants (trees, vines) that cannot be reliably fair-valued separately from the land they're rooted in, and which are instead accounted for as ordinary PPE. Finally, non-current assets held for sale (Part E) are measured at the lower of carrying value and fair value less cost to sell (with value in use dropping out of consideration entirely, since continued use is no longer the plan), depreciation stops the moment the held-for-sale classification is met, and sufficiently significant disposals, components of the entity, trigger extensive separate presentation and disclosure as discontinued operations, so that financial statement users can distinguish what the business will keep doing from what it's leaving behind.


Key Takeaways

  1. Revaluation is optional and requires reliably measurable fair value; impairment is mandatory regardless of which measurement model (cost or revaluation) an enterprise otherwise uses.
  2. For depreciable assets under the revaluation model, the proportional method preserves the depreciation-to-cost ratio (implying "as if these prices existed at purchase"); the elimination method resets accumulated depreciation to zero (implying "as if newly purchased"), neither is inherently more correct.
  3. Revaluation gains accumulate in OCI (revaluation surplus) only while the asset's cumulative revaluation history stays positive ("above water"); once "under water," further losses (and any recovery back toward zero) run through net income instead.
  4. The recoverable amount in an impairment test is the higher of fair value less cost to sell and value in use, not the more conservative (lower) figure, because management can rationally choose whichever alternative (sell or continue using) is more favourable.
  5. Goodwill and indefinite-life intangibles are tested for impairment every year automatically; everything else only when there's a specific indication of impairment.
  6. Impairment losses within a cash generating unit are allocated proportionally by carrying value, except goodwill absorbs losses first, and no asset can be written down below its own individually-known recoverable amount (triggering reallocation of that shortfall to other assets in the CGU).
  7. Impairment reversals are capped at what the carrying amount would have been had no impairment ever been recorded (not simply capped at the original loss amount), permitted under IFRS, never permitted under ASPE.
  8. Investment property, and biological assets/agricultural produce, both route fair value changes exclusively through net income, never OCI, unlike the revaluation model for ordinary PPE and intangibles.
  9. Transfers between PPE, inventory, and investment property require a genuine change in use and specific IFRS rules (not a discretionary reclassification), precisely to prevent earnings management via relabeling appreciated assets.
  10. Bearer plants (trees, vines, used only to grow produce, not sellable as produce themselves) are excluded from IAS 41's fair value requirement and accounted for as ordinary PPE instead, since their value can't reliably be separated from the land.
  11. Non-current assets held for sale are measured at the lower of carrying value and fair value less cost to sell (value in use is irrelevant here), and depreciation stops entirely once the held-for-sale classification criteria are met.
  12. Discontinued operations require extensive separate disclosure (a single after-tax summary amount, a six-component disaggregation, and cash flow details) so users can distinguish continuing operations from what the business is exiting.

Common Misconceptions and Mistakes

  • Assuming fair value changes always go through OCI. That's specific to the revaluation model for ordinary PPE/intangibles, and even then only for the "above water" portion. Investment property and agriculture fair value changes always go through net income, there's no OCI option in those specialized standards at all.
  • Picking the lower (more conservative-sounding) of fair-value-less-cost-to-sell and value-in-use for the recoverable amount. It's the higher of the two, because management can choose the better alternative (sell vs. continue using).
  • Assuming impairment reversal is capped simply at "the amount of the original loss." It's capped at what the carrying amount would have been absent the impairment, which requires recomputing what depreciation would have continued to be in the interim, not just adding back the original write-down dollar-for-dollar.
  • Forgetting to check whether an individually-known recoverable amount for one asset in a CGU would be violated by simple proportional allocation. If it would be, that asset's loss is capped, and the shortfall must be reallocated to the other assets, don't stop at the first, simpler proportional calculation.
  • Assuming the revaluation model and the fair value model (investment property) are the same thing. They overlap conceptually but differ in three concrete ways (frequency, income statement vs. OCI treatment, and whether depreciation is still required), see Checkpoint CP10-5.
  • Believing a company can simply reclassify appreciated PPE as investment property to recognize a gain. IFRS requires a genuine change in use, precisely to block this kind of earnings management.
  • Assuming trees, vines, and other perennial plants are always accounted for under IAS 41 at fair value. Since the 2014 amendment, bearer plants specifically are excluded from IAS 41 and accounted for like ordinary PPE, only the produce growing on them (grapes, fruit) stays under IAS 41.
  • Assuming depreciation continues as normal until an asset actually sells. It stops the moment the asset meets the "held for sale" classification criteria, not on the sale date itself.
  • Confusing "component of an entity" with any old asset sale. Discontinued-operations treatment only applies to disposals large/distinct enough to be a separate major line of business, geographic area, or a subsidiary bought purely for resale, not routine equipment sales.

Cheat Sheet

The four fair-value contexts in this chapter

Context Optional or mandatory? Gains/losses go through Depreciation?
Revaluation model (PPE/intangibles) Optional OCI (if cumulative +) or net income (if cumulative −) Yes
Impairment (any non-current asset) Mandatory Net income, unless offsetting a revaluation surplus (then OCI first) Prospectively adjusted after
Investment property, fair value model Optional (all-or-none across all investment property) Always net income No
Agriculture (biological assets/produce) Presumed fair value (rebuttable only at initial recognition) Always profit or loss N/A

Revaluation: proportional vs. elimination

Proportional method Elimination method
Gross carrying amount Scaled up/down by same % as net Reset to equal net carrying amount
Accumulated depreciation Scaled up/down by same % Reset to zero
Implies "As if these prices existed at original purchase" "As if newly purchased today"

Revaluation equity treatment (the "underwater" rule)

Cumulative revaluation adjustment > 0 ("above water")  →  further gains → OCI (revaluation surplus)
Cumulative revaluation adjustment < 0 ("under water")  →  further losses (or gains reversing losses) → net income
Crossing zero in one year → split: enough to reach zero → net income; remainder → OCI

Impairment test formula

Recoverable amount = higher of (Fair value − cost to sell) and (Value in use) Impairment loss = Carrying amount − Recoverable amount (only if carrying amount > recoverable amount)

Impairment testing frequency

Asset type When to test
Goodwill, indefinite-life intangibles Annually, always
Everything else (finite-life PPE/intangibles) Only when there's an indication of impairment (search for indications annually)

Impairment loss allocation within a CGU

  1. Goodwill absorbs the loss first.
  2. Remaining loss allocated proportionally by net carrying amount.
  3. Exception: no asset written down below its own known individual recoverable amount, reallocate any resulting shortfall to the other assets.

IAS 40 vs. IAS 16 quick comparison

IAS 40 fair value model IAS 16 revaluation model
Frequency Annual Annual or less often
Gains/losses Always net income OCI or net income (cumulative-history-dependent)
Depreciation None Required

IFRS vs. ASPE: impairment quick reference

IFRS ASPE
Recoverable amount test Discounted (higher of FV-less-cost-to-sell, value in use) Undiscounted cash flows
Loss measurement Carrying amount − recoverable amount Carrying amount − fair value
Reversals Permitted Never permitted
Revaluation model Permitted (optional) Not permitted

Key terminology glossary

Term Definition
Revaluation model Carrying non-current assets at fair value instead of cost (optional, IFRS only)
Revaluation surplus The OCI-fed equity reserve accumulating positive cumulative revaluation adjustments
Cash generating unit (CGU) Smallest asset group generating largely independent cash inflows
Recoverable amount Higher of fair value less cost to sell, and value in use
Value in use Present value of expected future cash flows from an asset/CGU
Investment property Land/buildings held for rental income or capital appreciation (not operational use, not for sale in the ordinary course of business)
Bearer plant A biological asset used only to grow produce over multiple periods, not itself sold as produce (accounted for as PPE, not under IAS 41)
Biological asset A living animal or plant
Agricultural produce The harvested product of a biological asset
Disposal group A group of assets and liabilities to be disposed of together in one transaction
Component of an entity Operations/cash flows clearly distinguishable from the rest of the entity (basis for discontinued-operations treatment)
Discontinued operations A disposed-of or held-for-sale component representing a major line of business/geographic area, or a resale-only acquisition

End of study guide. Since this chapter's source file was complete (no missing exhibits or checkpoints), there are no open content gaps to flag here.


Cross-Chapter Connections

  • Chapter 8: Cost model baseline. Chapter 10 is built directly on top of Chapter 8. Revaluation, impairment, and post-revaluation depreciation all assume the cost model cold. This is the largest structural gap in your vault: Chapter 8 has no guide.
  • Chapter 9: Goodwill and indefinite-life intangibles. Chapter 9 establishes which assets are tested annually; Chapter 10 supplies the mechanics, and the goodwill no-reversal carve-out.
  • Chapter 3: OCI and recycling. Revaluation surplus is an OCI-fed equity reserve. The transfer-to-retained-earnings-without-recycling rule on disposal (Exhibit 10-22) is the deliberate counterpoint to Chapter 3's recycling discussion. Also: held-for-sale presentation and discontinued operations.
  • Chapter 6: Lower of cost and NRV. LOCM and impairment share one logic: assets may not be carried above recoverable value. Different assets, same prudence principle.
  • Chapter 4: Biological assets. Chapter 4's IFRS/ASPE table cross-references IAS 41, treated in full here.
  • Chapter 2: Measurement bases. The four measurement bases reappear here as fair value, fair value less costs to sell, and value in use.

Common CPA Exam Traps

Watch outHigh-yield technical traps

Caveat: technical-risk areas identified from the structure of the standards, asymmetries, exceptions, look-alike concepts. Not verified CPA Common Final Examination marker data.

# Trap Why students miss it Correct approach Marker expectation
1 Taking the LOWER of FVLCD and value in use Impairment feels like conservatism, and conservatism means the smaller number. The instinct is strong and wrong. ==The recoverable amount is the HIGHER of the two.== Your textbook is explicit: "it is not intended to capture the worst-case scenario…", management can always choose the better alternative, so the relevant benchmark is the best available option. Conservatism enters elsewhere: the asset is written down at all rather than left at cost. State "higher of" and give the reason, management's genuine choice between selling and continuing to use. The reason is where the marks are.
2 Applying one uniform rule to revaluation adjustments "Gains to OCI" is a clean rule and is right about half the time. The treatment is ==asymmetric and history-dependent==. Above water (cumulative revaluation positive) → OCI, revaluation surplus. Under water (cumulative negative) → profit or loss. A single year's adjustment that crosses zero splits between the two: enough to bring the balance to exactly zero goes to P&L, the remainder to OCI. Exhibit 10-5 scenario (iii) is built to test the split. Compute the split explicitly. A single-destination answer on a zero-crossing fact pattern loses the marks.
3 Reversing a goodwill impairment IFRS permits reversals generally, so the rule seems to apply. Goodwill impairment can NEVER be reversed, see the IAS 36.124 audit fix. Any subsequent recovery is presumed to be internally generated goodwill, which can never be recognized. A fact pattern that impairs goodwill and then recovers is testing exactly this. Answer "no reversal" and give the internally-generated-goodwill reasoning.
4 Capping a reversal at the original loss amount It sounds like the natural symmetric cap. The cap is what the carrying amount would have been had no impairment occurred, which requires rebuilding the counterfactual depreciation schedule. Exhibit 10-16's maximum-reversal column ($10,417 / $8,333 / $6,250 / $4,167 / $2,083 / $0) shrinks over time precisely because both paths converge to zero. Build the "without impairment" line and take the difference.
5 Allocating a CGU loss proportionally without checking the floor The proportional split is the stated general rule and produces a tidy answer. After the proportional split, check every asset against the IAS 36.105 floor, the highest of (a) FVLCD if measurable, (b) value in use if determinable, and (c) zero. Machine B's $450,000 FVLCD blocks its allocation; the $30,000 is reallocated 75/25 to A and C. And goodwill absorbs the loss first, before any identifiable asset. Show the initial split, the floor check, and the reallocation as three distinct steps.
6 Continuing depreciation on a held-for-sale asset The asset has not sold yet. Depreciation stops the moment the held-for-sale classification criteria are met, not on the sale date. Measurement is at the lower of carrying amount and FVLCD — value in use drops out entirely, because continued use is no longer the plan. State that depreciation ceases at classification and that value in use is irrelevant.
7 Assuming classification changes the total equity effect PPE-revaluation and investment-property-fair-value presentations look completely different. The Arbutus Homes exhibits show the net effect on equity is identical ($780,000 / $480,000 / $3,000,000). Only the composition differs: revaluation splits between OCI surplus and retained-earnings depreciation; fair value routes everything through retained earnings with no depreciation. Say the total is unchanged and identify what actually differs, presentation, volatility, and depreciation.

Key IFRS/ASPE Rules

ImportantRules and citations

Audit-fix rules injected per your instruction

==IAS 36.124, goodwill impairment reversal is prohibited.== [Audit fix] An impairment loss recognized for goodwill shall not be reversed in a subsequent period, under any circumstances. Rationale: any subsequent increase is presumed to be internally generated goodwill, which can never be recognized as an asset (see Chapter 9). Your source text does not mention this carve-out anywhere.

IAS 36.105, the allocation floor is a three-part test. [Audit fix] In allocating an impairment loss, an entity shall not reduce the carrying amount of an individual asset below the highest of: (a) its fair value less costs of disposal, if measurable; (b) its value in use, if determinable; and (c) zero. Your textbook's Red Rocket example only ever needed leg (a), do not generalize from that single case.

[VERIFY: both paragraph references against the CPA Canada Handbook Part I. The rules are supplied per your explicit instruction; the paragraph numbers have not been independently re-confirmed.]

Rules sourced directly from your text

Rule Standard
Choose cost model or revaluation model; apply to an entire class of PPE IAS 16 ¶29
Cost model: cost less accumulated depreciation and accumulated impairment IAS 16 ¶30
Revaluation model: fair value at revaluation date, with sufficient regularity IAS 16 ¶31
Revaluation increase → OCI/revaluation surplus, unless reversing a prior P&L decrease IAS 16 ¶39
Revaluation decrease → profit or loss, unless offsetting an existing revaluation surplus IAS 16 ¶40
Minimum internal and external sources to search for impairment indications IAS 36 ¶12
Investment property fair value must reflect market conditions at the balance sheet date, implying annual estimates IAS 40 ¶40
Transfers into or out of investment property require a genuine change in use IAS 40 ¶57
Biological asset recognition requires control, probable benefit, and fair value OR cost reliably measurable IAS 41 ¶10
Held for sale if carrying amount will be recovered principally through sale rather than continuing use IFRS 5 ¶6
==ASPE prohibits the revaluation model entirely and prohibits all impairment reversals== ASPE

Journal Entry / Calculation Walkthrough

ExampleWorked walkthrough

Red Rocket Racers: CGU impairment, allocation, and the reallocation exception. Preserved exactly.

Step 1, carrying amount of the CGU: $\$216{,}000 + \$432{,}000 + \$72{,}000 = \mathbf{\$720{,}000}$

Step 2, fair value less cost to sell. Auction prices are rejected, they are bankruptcy liquidation prices, and forced-sale prices are not fair values. Management's orderly-sale estimates: $\$170{,}000 + \$450{,}000 + \$50{,}000 = \mathbf{\$670{,}000}$

Step 3, value in use. Discount Years 5–10 at 12% (Years 3–4 are past and irrelevant to a forward-looking test):

Yr 5 Yr 6 Yr 7 Yr 8 Yr 9 Yr 10
Cash flow 90,000 160,000 160,000 160,000 160,000 160,000
PV factor @ 12% 0.8929 0.7972 0.7118 0.6355 0.5674 0.5066
PV 80,357 127,551 113,885 101,683 90,788 81,061

Total = \$595,325 (rounded \$595,000)

Step 4, recoverable amount = HIGHER of the two: $\max(\$670{,}000,\ \$595{,}000) = \mathbf{\$670{,}000}$

Step 5, impairment: $\$720{,}000 - \$670{,}000 = \mathbf{\$50{,}000}$

Step 6, initial proportional allocation (30% / 60% / 10%): A \$15,000 · B \$30,000 · C \$5,000

Step 7: FLOOR CHECK. Machine B's carrying amount (\$432,000) is already below its own FVLCD (\$450,000). B is unimpaired. Its \$30,000 is reallocated to A and C in a 75/25 split of the remaining \$288,000 base.

Step 8, final allocation:

Machine A Machine B Machine C Total
Carrying amount before \$216,000 \$432,000 \$72,000 \$720,000
Loss allocated (37,500) 0 (12,500) (50,000)
Carrying amount after \$178,500 \$432,000 \$59,500 \$670,000

Step 9, journal entries.

Cost model (Exhibit 10-13):

Account Debit Credit
Impairment loss: Machine A 37,500
Accumulated depreciation: Machine A 37,500
Impairment loss: Machine C 12,500
Accumulated depreciation: Machine C 12,500

Revaluation model, Machine A holding a \$20,000 revaluation surplus (Exhibit 10-14):

Account Debit Credit
OCI, revaluation surplus, Machine A 20,000
Impairment loss: Machine A 17,500
Accumulated depreciation: Machine A 37,500
Impairment loss: Machine C 12,500
Accumulated depreciation: Machine C 12,500

All entries balance. Note the identical split-at-zero logic as Exhibit 10-5 scenario (iii): the surplus is eliminated first, the remainder hits net income.


Memory Anchors

TipMemory anchors

  • "Higher, not lower." Recoverable amount. Because management can choose.
  • Above water → OCI. Under water → P&L. Crossing zero → split.
  • Goodwill never reverses. Not capped, prohibited.
  • The cap is the counterfactual, not the original loss. Rebuild the "without impairment" line.
  • Proportional split, then floor check, then reallocate. Three steps, always in that order.
  • Held for sale: depreciation stops, value in use drops out.
  • Specialized standards have no OCI option. IAS 40 and IAS 41 route everything through P&L.
  • Bearer plants are PPE. Vines IAS 16; grapes IAS 41.

Adversarial CPA Mini-Scenario

CheckpointAdversarial CPA Mini-Scenario: click to expand

Facts. Nanaimo Industrial Ltd. reports under IFRS and uses the revaluation model for its equipment class. At December 31, a CGU comprising three machines has carrying amounts of $400,000 (X), $250,000 (Y), and $150,000 (Z); total $800,000. The CGU also carries $60,000 of goodwill from a prior acquisition. A competitor's technology launch is a clear indication of impairment. Fair value less costs to sell for the CGU is $610,000; value in use is $655,000. Machine Y's individual FVLCD is reliably measurable at $245,000; the others' are not separately determinable. Machine X carries a $25,000 revaluation surplus. Management also notes that a goodwill impairment recorded two years ago has since "clearly recovered" and proposes reversing it, and that a warehouse classified as held for sale in October has continued to be depreciated through December.

Required. Determine and allocate the impairment loss, and address management's two proposals.

Model answer. Recoverable amount = HIGHER of $610,000 and $655,000 = \$655,000. (Not the lower, management can choose to continue using the assets.) Carrying amount including goodwill = \$800,000 + \$60,000 = \$860,000. Impairment = $\$860{,}000 - \$655{,}000 = \mathbf{\$205{,}000}$. Goodwill absorbs first: \$60,000 written off in full. Remaining loss to allocate to identifiable assets = \$145,000. Proportional split (X 50% / Y 31.25% / Z 18.75% of \$800,000): X \$72,500 · Y \$45,313 · Z \$27,187. Floor check (IAS 36.105). Y's post-allocation carrying amount would be $\$250{,}000 - \$45{,}313 = \$204{,}687$, below its own FVLCD of \$245,000. Cap Y's loss at $\$250{,}000 - \$245{,}000 = \mathbf{\$5{,}000}$. Reallocate the remaining $\$45{,}313 - \$5{,}000 = \$40{,}313$ to X and Z in proportion to their carrying amounts (\$400,000 : \$150,000 = 72.73% : 27.27%): X +\$29,318, Z +\$10,995. Final: X \$101,818 · Y \$5,000 · Z \$38,182 · goodwill \$60,000 = \$205,000. (Round per your course convention.) Machine X's entry uses the revaluation model: the \$25,000 surplus is eliminated first through OCI, the remaining \$76,818 hits profit or loss. Proposal 1: REJECT. Goodwill impairment can never be reversed (IAS 36.124), under any circumstances. Any apparent recovery is presumed to be internally generated goodwill, which is unrecognizable. Proposal 2: REJECT. Depreciation must have ceased in October, when the held-for-sale criteria were met, not at the sale date. The October–December depreciation must be reversed, and the warehouse remeasured at the lower of carrying amount and FVLCD; value in use is irrelevant.

Red herrings. (i) FVLCD of \$610,000 is the lower figure and is presented first, inviting its selection as the recoverable amount. (ii) Machine Y's individual FVLCD looks like supporting detail; it is the floor that changes the entire allocation.

Common wrong answer. Using \$610,000, skipping the goodwill-first rule, and splitting proportionally without the floor check, three separate structural errors compounding.

Marker comment. Marks are for higher-of with the reason, goodwill absorbing first, the floor check and reallocation as distinct steps, the surplus-then-P&L split on X, and both rejections with citations.


🎯 Key Takeaways for CPA Candidates

  1. Recoverable amount is the HIGHER of fair value less costs to sell and value in use, because management can rationally choose the better alternative. Not the more conservative figure.
  2. Revaluation adjustments are asymmetric and history-dependent: above water → OCI, under water → P&L, crossing zero → split at zero.
  3. Goodwill impairment can never be reversed (IAS 36.124). ASPE prohibits all reversals.
  4. The reversal cap is what carrying value would have been absent the impairment, a counterfactual schedule, not the original loss amount.
  5. CGU allocation: goodwill absorbs first, then proportional by carrying amount, then check the IAS 36.105 floor (highest of FVLCD, value in use, and zero) and reallocate any blocked amount.
  6. Goodwill and indefinite-life intangibles are tested annually regardless of indications; everything else only on indication, with an annual search for indications still mandatory.
  7. Proportional and elimination methods produce the same net carrying amount; only the gross/accumulated-depreciation split differs. Neither is "correct", it is professional judgment.
  8. Revaluation is optional; impairment is mandatory. ASPE permits neither the revaluation model nor reversals.
  9. Specialized standards (IAS 40 investment property, IAS 41 agriculture) route all fair value changes through profit or loss, the OCI option disappears entirely.
  10. Bearer plants are excluded from IAS 41 since the 2014 amendment and accounted for as PPE under IAS 16. Vines are PPE; grapes are biological assets.
  11. Held-for-sale assets are measured at the lower of carrying amount and FVLCD, value in use drops out, and depreciation ceases at classification, not at sale.
  12. Classification (PPE vs. investment property) changes presentation, volatility, and whether depreciation is recorded, but not the total equity effect (Arbutus Homes: $780,000 / $480,000 / $3,000,000 either way).

Retrieval Practice

Questions visible, answers hidden. Attempt each before expanding.

CheckpointQ1: Is the recoverable amount the higher or lower of FVLCD and value in use? Why?

The HIGHER. Management can always choose the better alternative, sell or continue using. Your textbook is explicit that the test "is not intended to capture the worst-case scenario."

CheckpointQ2: A machine has a cumulative revaluation balance of −$15,000 and this year's adjustment is +$20,000. Where does it go?

Split. $15,000 to profit or loss (eliminating the under-water balance), $5,000 to OCI/revaluation surplus. Exhibit 10-5 scenario (iii).

CheckpointQ3: Can a goodwill impairment loss be reversed under IFRS?

No, never, under any circumstances (IAS 36.124). Any subsequent recovery is presumed to be internally generated goodwill, which cannot be recognized.

CheckpointQ4: State the IAS 36.105 allocation floor.

No individual asset may be written down below the highest of: (a) its fair value less costs of disposal, if measurable; (b) its value in use, if determinable; and (c) zero.

CheckpointQ5: What is the cap on an impairment reversal?

The carrying amount that would have existed had no impairment been recorded, requiring the counterfactual depreciation schedule. Not simply the original loss amount.

CheckpointQ6: How is a held-for-sale asset measured, and what happens to depreciation?

Lower of carrying amount and fair value less costs to sell, value in use is irrelevant, since continued use is not the plan. Depreciation ceases the moment the classification criteria are met.

CheckpointQ7: Do fair value changes on investment property ever go to OCI?

No. Under IAS 40's fair value model they always go to profit or loss. The same is true of IAS 41 biological assets. The OCI option is specific to the IAS 16 revaluation model.

CheckpointQ8: Why are vines accounted for as PPE rather than biological assets?

They are bearer plants, used only to grow produce over multiple periods and not themselves sold as produce. The 2014 IASB amendment excluded them from IAS 41's fair value requirement. Andrew Peller's $31.1M of vines sits in PP&E at cost less accumulated amortization; only the unharvested grapes are biological assets.

CheckpointQ9: Name the three ways ASPE differs from IFRS on impairment.

(1) Recoverable amount uses undiscounted cash flows, while the loss is measured against fair value. (2) No reversals, ever. (3) No revaluation model, so all impairment flows through profit or loss and never OCI.


Source Fidelity & Obsidian QA

CheckSource Fidelity & Obsidian QA

  • Original definitions preserved: ✅, all Parts A–I definitions carried verbatim
  • Original calculations preserved: ✅: Quesnel $120,000/$150,000/$40,000/$50,000/25%; Red Rocket $720,000/$670,000/$595,325/$50,000 and the full 30-60-10 → 75-25 reallocation to $37,500/$0/$12,500; Exhibit 10-15 $60,500/$59,500/$9,917; Exhibit 10-16 maximum reversals $10,417/$8,333/$6,250/$4,167/$2,083/$0; Arbutus Homes $20M/$11.78M/$10.98M/$13M and reserves $380,000/$200,000/$2,830,000; Andrew Peller $2,920/$2,045/$7,957/$7,896/$7,082/$8,666/$31.1M; Rio Tinto $15,281/$7.35/$1,706/$4,782
  • Original journal entries preserved: ✅: Quesnel proportional and elimination, Exhibit 10-5 three scenarios, Exhibits 10-13/10-14 impairment, Exhibits 10-21/10-22/10-23 investment property transfers. All amounts unchanged
  • Exhibit references preserved: ✅, all 26 exhibits (10-1 through 10-26) retained
  • Standard citations not fabricated: ✅: IAS 16 ¶29/30/31/39/40, IAS 36 ¶12, IAS 40 ¶40/¶57, IAS 41 ¶10, IFRS 5 ¶6 all appear in your source. IAS 36.124 and IAS 36.105 injected per your explicit instruction and flagged [VERIFY]
  • Journal entries balanced: ✅, all sets verified, including the OCI-then-P&L split on Machine A
  • Mermaid syntax valid: ✅: Exhibits 10-7 and 10-24 converted. Exhibits 10-4 and 10-17 deliberately retained as ASCII curves per your instruction, because Mermaid cannot render them properly
  • Known source gaps flagged, not invented over: ✅, no content gaps in this chapter. All 26 exhibits and all 9 checkpoints present in the source
  • Remaining gaps: None identified in the source. Two technical gaps were closed by audit fix (goodwill reversal prohibition, three-part allocation floor), both flagged [VERIFY] for Handbook confirmation.

NoteRefinement Log

  • Preserved: every original definition, criterion, standard reference, exhibit number, calculation, worked example, checkpoint answer, and gap flag. Verified by automated word-level diff against the original guide, zero content loss.
  • Clarified: blockquote labels moved into typed callout headers; checkpoint questions surfaced as callout titles with answers collapsed beneath, restoring retrieval practice.
  • Added: YAML frontmatter with standards, LOs, week, framework, and gap register; wikilinks at genuine cross-reference points; Common CPA Exam Traps; Key IFRS/ASPE Rules; Journal Entry / Calculation Walkthrough; Memory Anchors; Adversarial CPA Mini-Scenario; Key Takeaways for CPA Candidates; Retrieval Practice; this QA block.
  • Corrected: chapter-specific technical patches applied and labelled [Audit fix] inline. Every injected standard reference carries a [VERIFY] marker, none was asserted as settled.
  • Visual upgrades: all blockquotes converted to typed Obsidian callouts; checkpoints and gap flags collapsed by default; Mermaid diagrams added for the conversion targets specified for this chapter.
  • Not done: ASCII diagrams outside the named Mermaid conversion targets were left in fenced code blocks rather than converted or removed, because deleting or reworking them would risk the zero-loss constraint. They render correctly in Obsidian as monospace.

NoteSource Mapping

Original Item Refined Location
Note on sources > [!info] callout, top of note
THRESHOLD CONCEPT blockquotes > [!abstract], or > [!danger] where Quality of Earnings
Checkpoint CPx-y blocks > [!question]- collapsed, question in header
Gap flags > [!bug]- collapsed
Instructor's Notes > [!tip]
Quoted standard paragraphs > [!quote] or > [!important] rule blocks
Formula blocks > [!example] with LaTeX
Executive Summary, Key Takeaways, Common Misconceptions, Cheat Sheet retained in place, unchanged
Named exhibits per this chapter's Mermaid targets Decision Flowcharts & Logic Trees section

Converted once from my own markdown note by a script outside this repository. The HTML is the record, and this page is the published form of it. How the site counts it.

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